The Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification is an internationally recognized project management certificate that tests an individual's ability to manage the people, procedures, and business goals involved with a professional project. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), which administers the certification, there are over one million PMP holders worldwide. It applies to almost every area, including healthcare, construction, information technology (IT), and business. You’ve taken the choice to acquire your Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification. It’s a huge step in your career, and it may be a time-consuming and tough trip. However, this accreditation from Project Management Institute (PMI)® is well worth the effort. SPOTO provides PMP dumps according to the most recent PMBOK Guide - Sixth Edition and the PMP Examination Content Outline 2021.   Question 1 An agile project is running activities to define the minimum viable product (MVP) During the session, the project manager identifies some mandatory regulations, but there is no consensus to include these regulations in the MVP because it may extend the duration of the project. What should the project manager do?   A. Share with the participants the need to focus only on product functionality. B. Ask the project sponsor to add more time to the project. C. Train the team on the new regulations as requested by management. D. Get commitment from the team to include all of the required regulations.   Correct Answer: D   Question 2 A new project manager is planning an information security project for a company that resides in different countries. What is the first step the project manager should take to gather customer requirements?   A. Request relevant stakeholders to conduct an analysis and reach consensus independently. B. Conduct a stakeholder analysis to identify how regional policies may influence needs. C. Conduct project planning meetings in one location with relevant stakeholders. D. Conduct a project scope review workshop with relevant stakeholders.   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 The project schedule is falling behind and the project manager observes that the project team seems to be spending the majority of their time writing documentation instead of performing project tasks. What should the project manager do to help ensure that the team focuses on project tasks?   A. Review and adapt the appropriate project artifacts. B. Assign a team member to handle the documentation activities. C. Save all documentation activities until the end of the project. D. Coach the project team to complete the project documentation activities.   Correct Answer: A   Question 4 During the retrospective ceremony, the agile team is talking about the product owner's expectations not being met. What should the project manager have done at the beginning of the project?   A. Communicated project vision and sprint goals clearly to the team. B. Defined the expected agile team contribution in the creation of the backlog. C. Defined the team ground rules and shared project vision. D. Assessed the capabilities of the agile team and planned for the required training.   Correct Answer: A   Question 5 While managing a project, the project manager has just noticed that the last several monthly invoices have been challenged by the client when they were clearly defined The actual invoice payments received have also been late and were outside of the contracted payment schedule. Recent invoices have only been partially paid. What should the project manager do?   A. Add nonpayment to the issue log and keep tracking payments. B. Conduct a meeting with the project team to update the procurement management plan. C. Hold a meeting with the client to address the issue. D. Review past projects for payment-related lessons learned.   Correct Answer: C   Question 6 Five agile teams working together on a product recently performed release planning Midway through the project, each team showed that their progress was on track. When all of the teams integrated at the product level, many integration issues were observed. The overall product release progress declined with predictions showing the committed content will not be able to be accomplished. What should the project manager have done differently?   A. Formed a separate quality assurance team to test all items coming from each team at the end of each sprint. B. Ensured frequent and continuous integration of work to obtain early feedback and continuous learning C. Arranged an online session on the integration concept and suggested tools to the teams D. Performed a Scrum of Scrums on a regular basis to help the teams remove impediments   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 During project execution, the project manager notices that the work performance reports have deteriorated drastically in less than two weeks. The project team in country A is complaining about delays resulting from holidays occurring in country B that have impacted their project team. How should the project manager handle this situation?   A. Implement fast-tracking to compress the schedule and improve the SPI. B. Perform conflict management using the project's resource management plan. C. Review the risk management plan to evaluate the probability and impact of these delays. D. Implement cashing to compress the schedule and mprove the schedule performance index (SPI).   Correct Answer: A   Question 8 An organization is transitioning to agile and a project has been chosen as a pilot The assigned project manager only has experience using predictive approaches, but the project manager is now required to use agile approaches with the help of an agile coach During the retrospective of the fifth sprint, the project team complains that many obstacles exist with the organization that are creating project delays and rework. What should the project manager do in this situation?   A. Promote collaboration to help remove the obstacles for the team. B. Perform a root cause analysis during the standup meetings. C. Create a dedicated sprint to solve the obstacles with the team. D. Include impediment resolutions during daily standup meetings.   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 An organization has historically executed most projects using a predictive approach The organization now wants to change over to an agile approach. Which strategy will be useful to effectively help prepare the organization for this change?   A. Take a big bang approach of moving the whole organization to agile at once. B. Improve organizational readiness by addressing impediments to agile in the organization. C. Add multiple layers of managers who will be accountable for the agile execution. D. Create a task force of executives who will monitor agile projects on a daily basis.   Correct Answer: B   Question 10 A high-performing team member's performance has been consistently increasing over the past year, leaving other peers behind The project manager has been reluctant to publicly recognize the team member's contributions for fear of discouraging others The project manager is also concerned that the team member may leave if not rewarded for the contributions made. What should the project manager do?   A. Promote the higher performing team member to a higher position. B. Remind the high-performing team member to focus on shared rewards rather than individual rewards. C. Request the high-performing team member to mentor the other team members. D. Reward the high-performing team member privately to avoid team disruption.   Correct Answer: B     Conclusion PMP training and dumps provided by SPOTO help you learn from industry experts and pass the PMP exam on your first attempt.

What is the CCIE Security? The Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert (CCIE) security certification is an expert-level certification offered by Cisco. It is generally acknowledged as the most renowned certification available in information technology. Your experience and understanding of advanced security solutions are put to the test and validated by earning the CCIE Security certification. This certification should be a top priority for candidates interested in pursuing a career in the field of cyber security. You will get the high-level knowledge and abilities necessary to deploy cyber security services within the business if you choose to pursue the CCIE Security certification study route. What is covered in the CCIE Security exam? The CCIE Security certification confirms your competence in dealing with complicated security solutions. To acquire the CCIE Security certification, you must pass two examinations: a qualifying exam covering core security technologies and a hands-on lab exam covering security technologies and solutions spanning the whole network lifecycle, from design and deployment to operation and optimization. CCIE Security training To succeed on both tests, you must thoroughly acquaint yourself with both exam subjects. Our CCIE security training course will prepare you for the SCOR 350-701 and Lab exams (v6.0). The SCOR 350-701 (v1.0) test, as well as senior-level security employment chances, will be prepared for by CCIE security online classes. This test is required to get the CCNP and CCIE security certifications. The CCIE security course will provide you with the knowledge and skills required to deploy existing Cisco security solutions. If you have these master skills, you will be able to provide advanced threat protection against cybersecurity attacks. The new CCIE Security v6.0 Certification course is designed to prepare individuals for expert-level security-related employment responsibilities while also distinguishing them as technical leaders. The CCIE Security (v6.0) course covers programmability and automation. All theoretical lectures will be followed immediately by hands-on laboratory practices, which will be accessible 24 hours a day, seven days a week. What does the CCIE Security training provide? The primary objective of the CCIE Security training program is to enable you to describe security concepts and strategies, TCP/IP, network application, and endpoint attacks, Cisco ASA, Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall, email content security features and functions, web content security features and functions, VPNs, cryptography solutions and algorithms, Cisco IOS Software Layer 2 and Layer 2 data plane control, Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise and Stealtwatch, and Cisco Stealthwatch Stealthwatch. You will learn the skills and knowledge essential to design, execute, operate, and optimize complex network conditions via the CCIE Security v6.0 lab exam course. In addition, you will obtain practical experience with network automation and network programmability. The new CCIE Security certification program consists of an exam that qualifies you for expert-level professional responsibilities in security technology. CCIE Security now includes programmability and automation tools to help you scale security solutions. Prerequisite The CCIE Security certification does not have any official requirements. However, it would be advantageous if you have a solid understanding of the test subjects before appearing for the exam. Before taking the CCIE security certification, applicants should have between five and seven years of experience developing, installing, operating, and optimizing security technologies and solutions. Conclusion SPOTO would guarantee that all questions and answers in SPOTO are authentic and correct, unlike many other companies competing with low-quality and irrelevant inquiries. After purchasing the training, you may be confident that you will pass the tests if you study the SPOTO materials properly.Simply stop by to learn more about SPOTO's training courses.      

For professionals in project management, the PMP® certification is the gold standard. PMP training determines the significance, criticality, and frequency of each knowledge, task, and skill required to function according to industry standards. The PMP course is aligned with the latest PMP Examination Content Outline 2021 and covers the most recent best practices outlined in the PMBOK Guide - 6th Edition. In addition, it addresses current trends, issues regarding customization, and the necessary qualities a Project Management practitioner must possess.Due to the necessity of project managers, they should take required courses in order to pass the PMP exam, which SOPTO may assist with. You will receive the best possible online training for the PMP exam, as well as a money-back guarantee if you do not pass. Our course covers subjects such as building a high-performing team, initiating the project, accomplishing the task, keeping the team on track, and keeping the company in mind. You will receive 35 contact hours of on-demand video, practice tests, free downloadable tools, the most recent PMBOK Guide 7th eBook, and PMI digital materials. We are committed to assisting you in passing the PMP exam on the first attempt. ✔Theory Training Aligned With PMBOK ✔Obtain PMI Approval ✔100% Cover Real PMP Dumps ✔100% Pass Exam at First Try ✔PMI Certified Professional Instructors ✔100% Money-Back ✔Guarantee Access to Training Video Anytime Anywhere ✔Latest Exam Feedbacks SPOTO would consist of a technical team with 17 years of experience in IT Certification exam preparation and reference materials such as study guides, questions and answers, practice tests, and more. SPOTO Club has enjoyed a great deal of success over the years, and it has formed a close partnership with Tencent.com. Exam preparation for Cisco CCNA, CCNP, CCIE, PMP, CompTIA+, Microsoft, Redhat, Huawei, Linux, Aruba, Oracle, and Palo Alto is our specializations. At SPOTO Club, a team of seasoned specialists will be present to allow you to pass these exams on your first attempt. They ensure that you will have an in-depth understanding of the key information points following significant preparation using their study materials. After completing SPOTO's PMP course, you will be prepared to pass the PMP exam and have the necessary knowledge, tools, and resources to further your career. The application is the initial step toward earning the Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification. Prior to submitting an application for the PMP® certification, you must satisfy specified eligibility requirements, including domain experience levels, educational prerequisites, etc. Using the SPOTO PMP Application Service, your application will be approved. ✔Learn to develop WBS, and your project will be half as successful! ✔Earned value management is a crucial strategy for cost control. ✔Regulations and flowcharts for project management optimize cost, resource, and duration. ✔The most typical project cost estimation management strategies. ✔For project quality management, there are seven different types of control tools. ✔Why is it necessary to plan and control a project according to a schedule? ✔How can a project manager properly track, review, and report on the progress of a project? ✔What steps should project managers take when confronted with project risks? ✔Project managers' tools and approaches for gathering requirements. ✔Five performance appraisal approaches provide you with more flexibility in team management. ✔PDM, CPM, and network diagram. Explanations of CCM and other technical terms. In addition, SPOTO Club would guarantee that all questions and answers in SPOTO Club are authentic and correct, unlike many other companies competing with low-quality and irrelevant inquiries. After purchasing the study dumps, you may be confident that you will pass the tests if you study the SPOTO Club materials properly.Simply stop by to learn more about SPOTO's PMP training courses and dumps.  

Cisco DC Core Technologies or DCCOR 350-601 is a CCIE and CCNP level test; you must pass this exam if you plan to take the Cisco DC Lab or are preparing for the CCNP Data Center certification. It is one of the two mandatory examinations for CCNP certification; the other test may be one of five data center concentration exams. The lack of a CCNA Data Center test in the more recent exam-style means specialties begin with the CCNP certification.   SPOTO provides the essential CCNP 350-601 study materials and training. Now, evaluate yourself using the sample test provided below. If you require additional 350-601 exam questions, please contact us for the lowest price.   Question 1 Which virtual MAC address is the default for HSRP version 2 group 10?   A. 0000.5E00.0110 B. 0000.0C9F.F00A C. 3716.1350.1C0A D. 0000.0C9F.F010   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 Which mroute state is created when Bidirectional PIM is deployed at a site?   A. *.G B. MVPN Type-6 C. MVPN Type-7 D. S.G   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 A small remote office is set to connect to the regional hub site via NSSA ASBR. Which type of LSA is sent to the remote office OSPF area?   A. type 7 LSA B. type 1 LSA C. type 5 LSA D. type 3 LSA   Correct Answer: A   Question 4 The engineer must configure SPAN on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch to get a capture of the traffic from these applications for an in-depth packet analysis. Which two SPAN characteristics must be considered? (Choose two.)   A. SPAN source ports can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions. B. The Ethernet, FC, vFC, port channel, SAN port channel can be used as SPAN source ports. C. A SPAN source port cannot be a destination SPAN port. D. Only Ethernet, FC, vFC, port channel port types can be used as SPAN source ports. E. The rx/tx option is available for VLAN or VSAN SPAN sessions.    Correct Answer: BC   Question 5 A customer has a requirement to deploy a cloud service and needs to have full control over the underlying OS, data and applications. Which cloud model meets this requirement?   A. MaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. IaaS   Correct Answer: D   Question 6 Due to a major version change, an engineer must perform a software upgrade on a Cisco Nexus Series switch. Which two technologies can be implemented to reduce disruptions to the network during the upgrade? (Choose two.)   A. vPC B. HSRP C. VDC D. MLAG E. PAgP    Correct Answer: AC   Question 7 What are two capabilities of the Cisco Network Assurance Engine? (Choose two.)   A. It validates that devices comply with network security policies. B. It predicts the impact of changes to the network. C. It predicts the network load on a data center. D. It ensures that network performance meets an SLA. E. It verifies the speed of network packet flows by using telemetry.   Correct Answer: AB   Question 8 What is an advantage of streaming telemetry over SNMP?   A. on-change traps sent to a receiver B. periodic push-based subscription messages C. periodic polling of the device status D. MD5-based authentication on polling   Correct Answer: B   Question 9 APIC EPG Resolution Immediacy is set to "Immediate". Which statement is true about the Deployment Immediacy for VMM domains associated to EPGs?   A. If "On demand" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware only when the first packet is received through the data path. B. It "Immediate" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware as soon as the leaf is booted. C. The "Immediate" and "On demand" options require a port group to be created on the VDS. D. If "On demand" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware only when the APIC detects a VM created in the EPG.   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 Which method must a network engineer use to upgrade the BIOS firmware or a Cisco UCS standalone C-Series rack mount server?   A. Use the U-ACPI Interface. B. Use the Cisco host upgrade utility. C. Use the Cisco hardware upgrade utility. D. Use the Cisco host firmware policy.   Correct Answer: B     Conclusion If you want to get your dream job in IT industry or be promoted, then passing CCNP 350-601 exam will help a lot. There are more CCNP 350-601 dumps on SPOTO.

To succeed in their professions and use the potential of network automation to scale and secure their networks, today's mid-level networking engineers, network administrators, network support technicians, and help desk technicians require a more extensive set of abilities. The CCNP and CCIE Company Core certifications teach you how to set up, diagnose, secure, and automate wired and wireless networks.   It will take a significant preparation to pass the 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies Exam. SPOTO aims to assist you in passing the exam by providing you with all of the Cisco 350-401 exam questions and answers you'll require.   Now evaluate yourself using the practice test provided below. If you require additional 350-401 test dumps, please get in touch with us for the best price.   Question 1 What does a YANG model provide?   A. standardized data structure independent of the transport protocols B. creation of transport protocols and their interaction with the OS C. user access to interact directly with the CLI of the device to receive or modify network configurations D. standardized data structure that can be used only with NETCONF or RESTCONF transport protocols   Correct Answer: A   Question 2 How do the RIB and the FIB differ?   A. RIB contains the interface for a destination, and the FIB contains the next hop information. B. FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the data plane. C. RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB. D. FIB contains routes learned through a dynamic routing protocol, and the RIB contains routes that are static or directly connected.   Correct Answer: C   Question 3 What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?   A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?   A. provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration B. performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks C. used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches D. in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 A customer wants to connect a device to an autonomous Cisco AP configured as a WGB. The WGB is configured properly; however, it fails to associate to a CAPWAP-enabled AP. Which change must be applied in the advanced WLAN settings to resolve this issue?   A. Disable FlexConnect local switching. B. Disable AAA override. C. Enable Aironet IE. D. Enable passive client.   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 How do stratum levels relate to the distance from a time source?   A. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. B. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. C. Stratum 15 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. D. Stratum 15 devices are an authoritative time source.   Correct Answer: B   Question 7 What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)   A. LED lights B. rogue AP C. radar D. fire alarm E. conventional oven Correct Answer: BC   Question 8 When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?   A. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value B. when a stack member fails C. when the stack primary is reset D. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack   Correct Answer: C   Question 9 What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?   A. The number of hops takes to reach the authoritative time source. B. The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server. C. The amount of offset between the device clock and true time. D. The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 What is YANG used for?   A. scraping data via CLI B. processing SNMP read-only polls C. describing data models D. providing a transport for network configuration data between client and server   Correct Answer: C     Conclusion SPOTO’s Cisco Certified Network Associate 350-401 dumps assist candidates in fully comprehending the exam. You’ll have more job opportunities and a better chance of making more money.

Whether you're a newcomer to the sector or an experienced professional, knowing the fundamentals of Microsoft Azure will help you jump-start your career and prepare you to dive further into the numerous technological options offered by Azure. The certification verifies your fundamental understanding of cloud services and how they are delivered through Azure. Candidates should have a fundamental knowledge of cloud computing fundamentals, as well as Azure services, workloads, security, privacy, pricing, and support.   Now that we've established the critical nature of Azure Certification, we recommend that you take the first step toward preparing for Azure Certification.   1. Begin with Small Steps Even if you are completely familiar with every aspect, there is a potential that you will be unsure of where to begin. Without a doubt, it is suggested that you start with the AZ-900 Azure Fundamentals exam. The Microsoft Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 Exam will assist you in comprehending the operation of Microsoft Azure without providing excessively detailed technology scripts. The Microsoft AZ-900 examinations place a premium on basic concepts over testing methodology.   2. Review the Exam Outline Thoroughly Indeed, the first and most important thing to do once you've chosen an exam is to read the test guidelines. Additionally, Microsoft gives all pertinent information on the certification page to assist in preparing. This section contains information about the talents being assessed, the requirements, the test strategy, and the exam materials. Additionally, Microsoft provides a learning path, a guide to training and certification, and policies to aid you in focusing on and studying the suitable topics.       3. Analyze the Exam Format  Having a firm grasp of the exam style and question types before sitting for the exam can be beneficial. Microsoft specifies the question types for the various exam formats in each test. As a result, it is vital to understand the multiple types of questions and how to answer them. This will assist you in obtaining the maximum number of points possible for each question. While Microsoft provides official practice tests, you can also locate some reputable Microsoft Azure exam questions to aid your preparation.    4. Video Training and Courses In general, you'll find various video training courses online that give video-based preparation for the Azure exam. We recommend that you enroll in the SPOTO courses and training; they are the perfect match.    5. Instruction by an Instructor Once you've compiled the list, Microsoft also offers a variety of self-study learning tools to assist you in preparing for Microsoft Azure Certification examinations. Indeed, the classroom experience is highly effective when combined with the appropriate mix of trainers. However, you can combine different courses for various technologies with in-person or online training from SPOTO.   6. Must Conduct Practice Examinations Additionally, Microsoft Azure Certification examinations include some authentic practice tests. Also, the practice test is regarded as an excellent tool for quantifying your learning curve and determine where you are in your preparation cycle. SPOTO's test demos and dependable study tools for Microsoft Azure Certification are highly recommended.   Conclusion Microsoft Azure certification is at the top of the heap, and it's a massive plus on so many levels. A Microsoft Azure career will never degrade in value, instead, it will continue to expand faster. Whether you want to boost your candidate’s attractiveness or, more likely, dramatically advance your career. This qualification could be the difference between success and failure. Not only do you need to learn how to design, manage, and protect Azure cloud systems to become certified and land a job, but you also need practical hands-on experience. SPOTO provides mock examinations and practice papers to help you prepare for the Azure certification exam.  

This test is intended for candidates who wish to demonstrate a working knowledge of cloud services and how they are delivered using Microsoft Azure. The exam is designed for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or purchasing cloud-based solutions and services, or those who have some involvement with cloud-based solutions and services, as well as those with a technical background who wish to validate their foundation level knowledge around cloud services. Although no technical IT background is necessary, some general IT knowledge or experience would be advantageous.   This exam is an optional initial step in learning about cloud services and how Microsoft Azure exemplifies those concepts. It can be used as a warm-up for Microsoft Azure or Microsoft cloud services certification tests. While passing this exam would be a helpful first step toward confirming foundational knowledge, it is not required before pursuing any other Azure-based certifications.   If you’re interested in pursuing the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification in 2022 but are unsure how to prepare, you’ve come to the correct spot. Today, I'll give a comprehensive guide to studying for the AZ-900 certification test, links to books, tutorials, manuals, whitepapers, and online courses.   How to pass the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 exam in 2022? It is critical to prepare thoroughly if you wish to sit for the AZ-900 certification exam. Since the exam is new, you must follow the proper preparation approach to pass the exam the first time.   1. Online Courses Online courses are critical for preparation for the Azure Fundamentals or AZ-900 certification exams. While Microsoft offers official training, it is prohibitively expensive, and there are other affordable choices like SPOTO offers available to individuals studying for the Azure Finance or AZ 900 exam.   2. Books and Reading Material If you have a reputable Azure book, your impact on studying for the AZ-900 exam will be significant. However, most Azure books now accessible do not fulfill the requirements of necessary readers or industry standards. However, we have included a list of Azure books that might be highly beneficial for preparing for the AZ-900 test. 1. Microsoft Azure For Beginners: Getting Started with Microsoft Azure 2. Azure: Microsoft Azure Tutorial The Ultimate Beginners Guide   3. Best Exam Simulators and Practice Questions Simulator practice is the most effective technique to assess your skills and talents in a particular area. Additionally, you might locate numerous websites during your AZ-900 exam preparation that claim to have the best AZ-900 exam simulator. Never trust these websites, as they do not offer a realistic exam setting or authentic questions. Using these simulators can occasionally fail the main exam. As a result, keep these issues in mind as you study for the AZ-900 exam. I suggest SPOTO's Microsoft Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 Simulator since it simulates an authentic test atmosphere and has real questions.   4. White Papers, Analysts Reports, and EBooks When preparing for the AZ-900 exam, this stage is always optional. This is just as critical as related books or publications, as Microsoft publishes these items. Numerous Azure documentation is available from these sites. Additionally, subscribe to Azure Notifications to be informed about the newest Azure developments.   Conclusion We appreciate your time spent so far reading this material. Please share these AZ-900 Exam guides, books, courses, dumps, or practice tests with your friends and colleagues if you find them useful. And if you're new to Azure Cloud Platform and searching for some beneficial online training courses to help you understand the fundamentals of Azure and prepare for the Azure Fundamentals certification, SPOTO can help.

Cisco Systems offers the CCNP Service Provider certification, demonstrating competency with advanced configuration and management of service provider networks. The CCNP Service Provider certification is respected and challenging to obtain.   In order to get the CCNP 350-501 Service Provider certification, the CCNP 350-501 dumps and training you need will be provided by SPOTO. Now, evaluate yourself by using the demos below. If you require more 350-501 exam dumps, please get in touch with us for the best price.   Question 1 What is the function of Cisco NFV infrastructure platform?   A. It offers decentralized logging. B. It offers consistent performance. C. It does not have a security audit feature. D. It does not offer high availability.   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 Which function does RSVP perform in a Cisco MPLS TE environment?   A. It reserves the bandwidth along the path between the head-end and tail-end router. B. It signals to LDP protocol along the path that a Cisco MPLS TE will be configured. C. It reserves bandwidth for LDP sessions between routers participating in a Cisco MPLS TE. D. It establishes targeted LDP sessions between neighbors that are directly connected.   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 While an engineer deploys a new Cisco device to redistribute routes from OSPF to BGP, they notice that not all OSPF routes are getting advertised into BGP. Which action must the engineer perform so that the device allows O, OIA, OE1 and OE2 OSPF routes into other protocols?   A. Configure the keyword nssa in the redistribution entry. B. Configure the keywords internal and external in the redistribution entry. C. Configure the synchronization keyword in the global BGP configuration. D. Configure the device to pass only O and E2 routes through it.   Correct Answer: B   Question 4 A new PE router is configured to run OSPF as an IGP with LDP on all interfaces. The engineer is trying to prevent black holes after convergence when the PE device loses an LDP session with other PE routers. Which action must the engineer take to implement LDP session protection on a new PE router?   A. Configure the mpls ldp session protection and mpls label protocol ldp commands on the new PE router that connect to the CE routers. B. Configure the new PE router with the mpls ldp session protection command on interfaces with directly connected neighbors. C. Configure the new PE router with the mpls ldp session protection command and on neighboring routers that connect to this new PE router. D. Configure the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept and mpls ldp session protection commands on the interfaces on the new PE router that connect to the CE routers.   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 Which two features describe TI-LFA? (Choose two.)   A. TI-LFA leverages the post-convergence path that carries data traffic after a failure. B. Unlike RLFA TI-LFA works without the PQ node and provides double segment failure protection C. Tl-LFA uses PQ or P and Q nodes on the post-convergence path to compute the backup path. D. TI-LFA works with point of local repair when the PQ node supports only LDP capability. E. Post-convergence, T-LFA considers the next-hop neighbor to calculate the backup repair path.   Correct Answer: AC   Question 6 What is a characteristic of MVPN?   A. It creates GRE tunnels to route multicast traffic over a service provider IP core. B. It allows VRF traffic to use the service provider MPLS VPN to route multicast traffic. C. It uses pseudowires to route unicast and broadcast traffic over either a service provider MPLS or IP core. D. It bypasses the use of MPLS in the service provider core and transmits packets using IP only.   Correct Answer: B   Question 7 How is a telemetry session established for data analytics?   A. A destination initiates a session to a router. B. A router initiates a session using the dial-out mode to a destination. C. The destination initiates a session using the dial-out mode to the router. D. A router requests the data using Telnet   Correct Answer: B   Question 8 An engineer must implement QoS to prioritize traffic that requires better service throughout the network. The engineer stated by configuring a class map to identify the high-priority traffic. Which additional tasks must the engineer perform to implement the new QoS policy?   A. Attach the class map to a policy map that designates the action to be taken on the classified traffic and then attach the policy map to an interface using a service policy. B. Attach the class map to a policy map that sets the minimum bandwidth allocated to the classified traffic and designates the action to be taken on the traffic. C. Attach the class map to a policy map within a VRF to segregate the high-priority traffic and then attach the policy map to an interface in another VRF. D. Create a route map to manipulate the routes that are entered into the routing table and then attach the route map to an interface using a service policy.   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 What is the role of NSO?   A. Maintains data storage. B. Provides public cloud services for customers that need Internet access. C. Provides network monitoring services for Layer 3 devices. D. Controls the turn-up of a device.   Correct Answer: D   Question 10 A network engineer is configuring RIP as the routing protocol between multiple PEs and CEs. The engineer must avoid advertising the same routes back to their sources. Which action should be performed on the routers to accomplish this task?   A. Configure a different route distinguisher for each prefix. B. Enable bidirectional forwarding detection on each device. C. Define VRFs on each device to separate the traffic. D. Define the site of origin on each interface.   Correct Answer: D   Conclusion It is normal to feel tense, but this sensation will pass away once you study diligently, and practice more than 90% demos on the 350-501 SPCOR, and then you’ll secure an incredible result on the actual exam. This is a test that, if passed, will alter the track of your life. You’ll almost certainly have a better chance of obtaining work, and you’ll also receive a raise in compensation.

If you’re concerned about failing the Cisco 350-801 (Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies) exam due to a lack of preparation, you no longer need to be. Cisco 350-801 latest dumps with fully verified answers.   SPOTO has gathered an exhaustive collection of Cisco 350-801 test questions and answers to assist you in preparing for the exam. We have assembled a database of actual Cisco 350-801 test questions and answers to assist you in preparing for and passing the exam on your first attempt.   Question 1 A user reports that when receiving an inbound call on their IP Phone from the PSTN they are unable to transfer this call to another PSTN number. What is the reason for this failure?   A. The incoming calling search space of the SIP trunk does not include the partition of the line in the lP phone. B. The service parameter related to Offnet to Offnet Call Transfer is set to TRUE. C. The IP phone is configured with the wrong region. D. The gateway is configured with the wrong device pool.   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 An engineer is confining a Cisco Unified Border Element to allow the video endpoints to negotiate without the Cisco Unified Border Element interfering in the process. What should the engineer configure on the Cisco Unified Border Element to support this process?   A. Configure a transcoder for video protocols. B. Configure path-thru content sdp on the voice service. C. Configure codec transparent on the dial peers. D. Configure a hardcoded codec on the dial peers.   Correct Answer: B   Question 3 An engineer is configuring IP telephony The network relies on DHCP to provide TFTP server addresses to the endpoints. Policy requires the endpoints to receive two server addresses. Which DHCP option must be configured?   A. 66 B. 143 C. 150 D. 166   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 A customer enters no ip domain lookup on the Cisco lOS XE gateway to suppress the interpreting of invalid commands as hostnames. Which two commands are needed to restore DNS SRV or A record resolutions?   A. ip dhcp excluded-address B. ip dhcp pool C. ip domain lookup D. ip dhcp-sip   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 A remote office has a less than optimal WAN connection and experiences packet loss, delay, and jitter. Which VolP codec should be used in this situation?   A. G.722.1 B. G.711alaw C. iL.BC D. G.729A   Correct Answer: D   Question 6 An administrator troubleshoots call flows and suspects that there are issues with the dial plan. Which tool enables a quick analysis of the dial plan and provides call flows of dialed digits?   A. Digit Analysis Analyzer B. Dial Plan Analyzer C. Cisco Dial Plan Analyzer D. Dialed Number Analyzer   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 Users want their mobile phones to be able to access their Cisco Unity Connection mailboxes with only having to enter their voicemail pin at the login prompt when calling the pilot number. Where should an engineer configure this feature?   A. transfer rules B. greetings C. alternate extensions D. message settings   Correct Answer: C   Question 8 Which SNMP service must be activated manually on the Cisco UCM after installation?   A. Connection SNMP Agent B. Host Resources Agent C. SNMP Master Agent D. Cisco CallManager SNMP   Correct Answer: D   Question 9 An engineer is going to redesign a network, and while looking at the QoS configuration, the engineer sees that a portion of the network is marked with AF42. Which type of traffic is marked with this tag?   A. video conference B. voice C. signaling D. streaming video   Correct Answer: D   Question 10 Which certificate does the Disaster Recovery System in Cisco UCM use to encrypt its communications?   A. Cisco CallManager B. Cisco Tomcat C. CAPF D. IPsec   Correct Answer: D   Conclusion The Cisco CLCOR 350-801 exam must acquire the Cisco Certified Specialist – Collaboration Core certification and two additional renowned accolades. This examination confirms the examinee's capacity to work with complicated collaborative features and deliver practical answers to their challenges in particular. SPOTO provides complimentary CCNP 350-801 dumps for the Cisco 350-801 test. You can also try out the Cisco 350-801 practice tests free of charge before you decide to purchase them.