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- 816
- SPOTO
- 2022-05-04 00:00
This CCNA course is designated as associate-level Cisco training, which is designed for new network administrators. This 200-301 CCNA certification course is appropriate for fresh IT professionals with at least a year of network administration experience and seasoned network administrators who want to certify their Cisco abilities.
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Question 1
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
A. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again
D. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
Correct Answer: BE
Question 2
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
A. manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP
B. configure extended VLANs
C. enable dynamic ARP inspection
D. activate all ports and place in the default VLAN
Correct Answer: A
Question 3
How does QoS optimize voice traffic?
A. by differentiating voice and video traffic
B. by reducing packet loss
C. by reducing bandwidth usage
D. by increasing jitter
Correct Answer: B
Question 4
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
A. preserve public IPv6 address space
B. support the NAT protocol
C. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses
D. conserve public IPv4 addressing
Correct Answer: D
Question 5
Which set of actions satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
A. The user enters a user name and password, and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.
B. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.
C. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email ink.
D. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification an authentication app on a mobile device .
Correct Answer: D
Question 6
Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol
C. Internet Group Management Protocol
D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: A
Question 7
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 18
Correct Answer: B
Question 8
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128
D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: B
Question 9
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP, and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. RIP
D. Internal EIGRP
Correct Answer: D
Question 10
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.
B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
C. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
D. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.
Correct Answer: B
Conclusion
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- 645
- SPOTO
- 2022-05-03 00:00
Cisco 350-701 SCOR exam assesses a broad range of skills, including network, cloud, and content security; endpoint protection and detection; and secure network access, visibility, and enforcement. By covering these fundamental security technologies, you will gain the knowledge required to pass the 350-701 SCOR.
SPOTO provides you with all the necessary CCNP 350-701 dumps and training. If you need more 350-701 dumps, contact us with the lowest price.
Question 1
What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of malware?
A. Tetra Engine to detect malware when the endpoint is connected to the cloud
B. Ethos Engine to perform fuzzy fingerprinting
C. Spero Engine with machine learning to perform dynamic analysis
D. ClamAV Engine to perform email scanning
Correct Answer: B
Question 2
What must be configured in Cisco ISE to enforce reauthentication of an endpoint session when an endpoint is deleted from an identity group?
A. SNMP probe
B. posture assessment
C. external identity source
D. CoA
Correct Answer: D
Question 3
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem?
A. The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
B. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
C. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
D. The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
Correct Answer: C
Question 4
A network engineer must monitor user and device behavior within the on-premises network. This data must be sent to the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud analytics platform for analysis. What must be done to meet this requirement, using the Ubuntu-based VM appliance deployed in a VMware-based hypervisor?
A. Configure a Cisco FMC to send syslogs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.
B. Configure a Cisco FMC to send NetFlow to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.
C. Deploy the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM sensor that sends data to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.
D. Deploy a Cisco FTD sensor to send network events to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.
Correct Answer: C
Question 5
An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with DLP policies and would like to customize the action assigned for violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a message added to flag it as a DLP violation. Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?
A. quarantine and alter the subject header with a DLP violation
B. deliver and add disclaimer text
C. deliver and send copies to other recipients
D. quarantine and send a DLP violation notification
Correct Answer: B
Question 6
Which component of Cisco Umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?
A. anycast IP
B. Cisco Talos
C. BGP route reflector
D. AMP Threat Grid
Correct Answer: B
Question 7
An administrator configures a new destination list in Cisco Umbrella so that the organization can block specific domains for its devices. What should be done to ensure that all subdomains of domain.com are blocked?
A. Configure the domain.com address in the block list.
B. Configure the *.domain.com address in the block list.
C. Configure the *.com address in the block list
D. Configure the *domain.com address in the block list.
Correct Answer: B
Question 8
What is a functional difference between a Cisco ASA and a Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall?
A. The Cisco ASA can be configured for high availability, whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone Based Policy Firewall cannot
B. The Cisco IOS router with Zone Based Policy Firewall can be configured for high availability, whereas the Cisco ASA cannot.
C. The Cisco IOS router with Zone Based Policy Firewall denies all traffic by default, whereas the Cisco ASA starts out by allowing all traffic until rules are added.
D. The Cisco ASA denies all traffic by default, whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall starts out by allowing all traffic, even on untrusted interfaces.
Correct Answer: C
Question 9
An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to analyze protocol fields and detect anomalies in the traffic from industrial systems. What must be done to meet these requirements?
A. Enable traffic analysis in the Cisco FTD.
B. Modify the access control policy to trust the industrial traffic.
C. Implement pre-filter policies for the CIP preprocessor.
D. Configure intrusion rules for the DNP3 preprocessor.
Correct Answer: D
Question 10
An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices. The default management port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed. What must be done to ensure that all devices can communicate together?
A. Set the sftunnel to go through the Cisco FTD.
B. Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTD devices.
C. Set the sftunnel port to 8305.
D. Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices.
Correct Answer: D
Conclusion
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- 864
- SPOTO
- 2022-05-31 14:59
Cloud computing is the newest fad in the world of information technology. Every business, large or small, is migrating its applications, infrastructure, and legacy systems to the cloud. As a consequence, personnel in the cloud computing industry are in great demand. Amazon Web Services currently dominates the cloud services industry. As a consequence, many people search the internet for AWS certification advantages on a daily basis.
Right now, AWS professionals are in great demand. As a consequence, wannabe cloud computing specialists should consider why they should obtain Amazon AWS certification. The benefits of AWS certifications may assist ambitious cloud computing experts in identifying new career prospects in the AWS industry.
If you're new to cloud computing, the AWS cloud practitioner certification exam is a good place to start. For novices to the cloud, the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner credential is required. To prepare for the AWS cloud practitioner certification, you may take the AWS certified cloud practitioner practice test.
Amazon Web Services (AWS) is a secure cloud computing platform that helps businesses improve productivity and run more smoothly. The Amazon AWS training courses provide candidates with a fundamental understanding of AWS, allowing them to create and maintain an IT infrastructure on AWS to help their companies grow. Our Amazon AWS training courses are jam-packed with sophisticated information and crafted by our cloud computing specialists to match industry standards and expectations, guaranteeing that delegates are exam-ready and prepared to become effective AWS Certified Professionals after finishing the course.
The number and kind of resources used by clients impact the pricing of AWS services. You may get a fast overview of the advantages of AWS certification by looking at the capabilities supplied by AWS. AWS' capabilities might be used to create and deploy services. The following functionalities are also available via AWS' other services.
On cloud-based web and application servers, internal applications and client-facing websites are hosted.
On cloud resources, all files and sensitive data are safely stored and quickly accessible. It's ideal for data backup and disaster recovery because to its ease of use.
Use AWS Glue, AWS Kinesis, and AWS QuickSight to do accurate data analytics.
Well-known database management systems such as Oracle, MySQL, SQL, and PostgreSQL may be used to establish a controlled database. This ability assists with data storage and report creation.
They're using services like AWS CloudFront to create large content delivery networks. Content delivery networks may send static files to a large number of edge points throughout the globe.
The Knowledge Academy is generally acknowledged as the premier source of Cloud Architect training in the world. With over 48 known Cloud Computing specialists with an average experience of more than 11 years in industry-recognized Cloud-Based Solutions, our "Cloud Services Training Team" is devoted to providing you with the most effective cloud computing training available. Our AWS teachers have created a unique teaching method to assist aspiring Cloud Engineers in learning how to manage massive Cloud-Based IT systems. Find out more about AWS's teachers. Because of their vast industry knowledge, our highly trained Cloud Professionals are routinely regarded by their employers as having the highest-ranked technical skills. When we teach and develop highly skilled Cloud Architects, Developers, and Engineers who go on to work on large-scale corporate projects and command the highest salary in the business, we call it a success. SPOTO is a recognized IT training organization with an 18-year track record of supporting thousands of students in passing IT exams by providing Cisco, AWS, Microsoft, ISACA, Huawei, Palo Alto, and other IT exam materials. SPOTO AWS dumps include 100% authentic AWS test questions, ensuring that you pass your AWS exam on the first go!100% pass guarantee
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- 693
- SPOTO
- 2022-05-30 00:00
What is the PMP certification?
The Project Management Professional (PMP) certification is an industry-standard widely recognized for project managers. The PMP certification displays the requisite experience, education, skills, and abilities for leading and directing projects. The Project Management Professional (PMP) is the Project Management Institute's most sought-after certification (PMI).
We've included extensive information about the PMP Certification Process, PMP Certification Training Courses, and PMP Certification Requirements to make achieving the world's most widely recognized project management certification less stressful and more accessible. Project Management Academy contains all you need to comprehend the PMP certification requirements and methodology, so you can instantly start studying!
Why should we get PMP certification?
The PMP has numerous benefits. First, in North America, the median income for project managers is 25 percent greater than that of non-project managers. Moreover, the PMP is advantageous. According to CIO magazine, the PMP is the premier project management certification in North America because it proves that you possess the same abilities that companies desire, a commitment to excellence, and the capacity to perform at the highest levels. In addition, PMP certification proves that you operate more efficiently. It demonstrates your ability to produce business results and grow your organization's global influence.
How can I pass PMP 2024 exam?
1. Utilize the PMP Exam Content Outline to refresh your recollection.
Examining the PMP Examination Content Outline is essential for passing the PMP examination. This PMI-published paper is the most trustworthy source for the following:
Questions are categorized based on the Process areas. According to the PMI Role Delineation Study, the following tasks, skills, and knowledge are necessary. This provides a high-level overview of the exam's subject matter. Once you believe you have a firm grasp of the PMBOK's (or other study guides') material, review these and ensure that nothing sounds unfamiliar.
2. Construct a study schedule.
Obtaining your PMP certification must also be treated as a project. Create a strategy outlining each step required to get your PMP certification. This is one of the sub-plans, and the study plan is a crucial one. Create a study plan that contains deadlines for, among other things, reading the PMBoK, performing simulated exams, and studying diverse resources.
3. Mock Exams for acclimatization
Frequently, Mock Exams are a fantastic indicator of your readiness for the real exam. They are useful for discovering knowledge gaps in project management. After finishing a test, you can examine the findings and focus on areas for improvement. Taking full-length practice exams is also crucial for another reason: it is difficult to remain still for four hours and focus entirely on answering questions. On both physical and mental levels, the experience is daunting and psychologically draining. However, it is necessary to obtain PMP certification. You should swiftly adjust to the situation before it's too late.
4. Enroll in a formal study course offered by an approved Registered Education Provider (REPs).
Registered Education Providers (R.E.Ps) are PMI-approved organizations that offer project management training. PMI began accrediting training providers to establish a global network of high-quality education providers capable of aiding hundreds of thousands of aspirants and holders of the PMI Project Management Professional (PMP) ® credential. There are numerous reasons for enrolling in a PMP training course. These courses give individualized PMP preparation resources and best practices. They provide a concise introduction to the various project management concepts, vocabulary, formulas, and other essential inputs required for PMP exam preparation.
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- 714
- SPOTO
- 2022-05-29 00:00
For project management professionals, the PMP® certification is the gold standard. PMP training identifies the importance, criticality, and frequency of each needed knowledge, task, and skill. The PMP course is aligned with the most current PMP Examination Content Outline 2021 and covers the most up-to-date best practices defined in the PMBOK Guide - 6th Edition. In addition, it discusses current trends, customization challenges, and the essential traits a Project Management professional must possess. Due to the importance of project managers, they must take the necessary courses to pass the PMP examination, which SOPTO can help with.
You will get the greatest online training available for the PMP exam, along with a money-back guarantee if you fail. Our training includes topics such as team building, launching the project, completing the assignment, keeping the team on track, and keeping the business in mind. You will get 35 contact hours of video on demand, practice exams, free downloading tools, the most current PMBOK Guide 7th eBook, and PMI digital resources. We are dedicated to helping you pass the PMP test on your first try.
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SPOTO would be comprised of a technical staff with 17 years of expertise in IT Certification exam preparation and reference materials such as study guides, questions and answers, and practice exams, among other things. Over the years, SPOTO Club has achieved a great lot of success, and it has built a tight connection with Tencent.com. Our expertise include exam preparation for Cisco CCNA, CCNP, CCIE, PMP, CompTIA+, Microsoft, Redhat, Huawei, Linux, Aruba, Oracle, and Palo Alto. At SPOTO Club, a team of experienced professionals will be available to help you pass these tests on the first try. Following extensive preparation with their study resources, they guarantee that you will have an in-depth comprehension of the important content points.
After finishing SPOTO's PMP course, you will be prepared to pass the PMP examination and equipped with the knowledge, skills, and resources essential to further your career. Application for Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification is the starting stage. Prior to submitting a PMP® certification application, you must meet certain eligibility criteria, such as domain experience levels, educational qualifications, etc. Your application will be authorized when you use the SPOTO PMP Application Service.
✔Learn to develop WBS, and your project will be half as successful!
✔Earned value management is a crucial strategy for cost control.
✔Regulations and flowcharts for project management optimize cost, resource, and duration.
✔The most typical project cost estimation management strategies.
✔For project quality management, there are seven different types of control tools.
✔Why is it necessary to plan and control a project according to a schedule?
✔How can a project manager properly track, review, and report on the progress of a project?
✔What steps should project managers take when confronted with project risks?
✔Project managers' tools and approaches for gathering requirements.
✔Five performance appraisal approaches provide you with more flexibility in team management.
✔PDM, CPM, and network diagram. Explanations of CCM and other technical terms.
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- 703
- SPOTO
- 2022-05-28 00:00
Cisco Certified Network Professionals (CCNP) is a certification for Cisco Certified Network Professionals. Professionals seeking specialized training in the deployment, maintenance, and planning of Cisco's multiple high-end network solution solutions should pursue the CCNP certification. CCNP Enterprise, CCNP Data Center, CCNP Security, CCNP Service Provider, CCNP Collaboration, and Cisco Certified DevNet Professionals are among the latest CCNP certifications. To acquire the CCNP certification, you must pass two tests for each course, beginning February 24, 2020: a core exam and a concentration exam.
In the IT world, the Cisco Certified Internet Expert (CCIE) certification is the most well-known and valued network qualification. The CCIE Certification verifies your ability to manage the whole IT lifecycle, from strategy to design to operation and optimization. CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, CCIE Wireless, CCIE Data Center, CCIE Security, CCIE Service Provider, and CCIE Collaboration are the six components of the new CCIE certification. To get CCIE certification, you must pass a written exam as well as an 8-hour lab exam.
One thing to keep in mind once Cisco restructured on February 24, 2020 is that the CCNP core exam is the same as the CCIE written exam for each track. That is, each CCNP certification requires just two exams: a core test and a focused exam of your choosing, allowing you to focus on your specific interests and requirements. The CCIE Lab test may be qualified for by passing the core examinations in each technical subject.
Why is it important for me to pass the CCNP/CCIE exam?
Potential for a long-term career
You will have to wait a long time if you rely entirely on CCNA to help you get work or boost your salary. Let's have a look at it. There are a lot of CCNAs, but only a few CCIEs. The CCNP and CCIE certifications are required if you wish to work in the network for a long period. The lack of CCNP and CCIE certificates will not render you jobless, nor will it prevent you from earning a decent living. However, regardless of your work experience, possessing them might help you obtain a job or enhance your income quicker.
Other certifications get less attention.
There are a plethora of IT vendor certifications available throughout the globe. Although the majority of them are beneficial, they are not a replacement for Cisco certification. For example, if you are Juniper Networks certified but lack the CCNP or CCIE, you may be restricted to a certain class. Contrary to popular belief, this is not the case. If you have solid Cisco knowledge, you can easily pick up new skills from other suppliers. "We don't use Cisco," says the speaker, and the audience becomes silent.
In the IT area, a good wage is available.
How much money can you make with a CCNP or CCIE certification? This is the topic of a separate essay, but the quick answer is what you're looking for. In the end, it comes down to personal experience, qualification, market, and business. The most essential thing to remember is that, all other things being equal, the money you make as a CCNP or CCIE is much more than that of a CCNA. According to the PayScale report for the United States, CCNP certification holders earn between $96k and $123k based on experience, locality, and job title. While CCIE certified professionals make between $124k and $144k per year. Did you notice the difference and why the CCIE is the most useful and tough Cisco certification?
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Online VIP customer assistance available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week - If you have dependable study resources, you may need someone to urge you to study; otherwise, the study materials will become obsolete. The customer support staff at SPOTO may direct you to a study group where a large number of candidates can share their experiences and discuss test ideas. They will also assist you in resolving any issues that may arise throughout your studies.
SPOTO instructors are seasoned CCIE professionals who will not only give help on how to answer the questions, but will also provide exam hints and comments on your practice test so you can figure out where you need to improve.
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- 833
- SPOTO
- 2022-05-27 10:00
Today's mid-level networking engineers, network administrators, network support technicians, and help desk technicians need a wider set of skills to be successful in their careers and to use the potential of network automation to scale and protect their networks. The CCNP and CCIE Company Core certifications educate candidates how to install, troubleshoot, protect, and automate enterprise-wide wired and wireless networks.
Passing the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies Exam 350-401 will need much study. SPOTO wishes to assist you in passing the test by providing you with the necessary Cisco 350-401 exam dumps.
Use the following practice exam to evaluate yourself. If you desire extra 350-401 exam dumps, please contact us for the lowest pricing available.
Question 1
An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?
A. service timestamps log uptime
B. logging buffer
C. logging host
D. terminal monitor
Correct Answer: D
Question 2
Which signal strength and noise values meet the minimum SNR for voice networks?
A. signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm
B. signal strength -68 dBm, noise 89 dBm
C. signal strength -66 dBm, noise 90 dBm
D. signal strength -67 dBm, noise 91 dBm
Correct Answer: A
Question 3
How do cloud deployments differ from on-premises deployments?
A. Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments.
B. Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments
C. Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments.
D. Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments.
Correct Answer: C
Question 4
Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?
A. provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration
B. performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks
C. used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches
D. in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node
Correct Answer: C
Question 5
What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?
A. It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network.
B. It allows LISP to be applied as a network virtualization overlay though encapsulation.
C. It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router.
D. It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6
In which two ways does the routing protocol OSPF differ from EIGRP? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF supports an unlimited number of hops. EIGRP supports a maximum of 255 hops.
B. OSPF provides shorter convergence time than EIGRP.
C. OSPF is distance vector protocol. EIGRP is a link-state protocol.
D. OSPF supports only equal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing.
E. OSPF supports unequal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports only equal-cost load balancing.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 7
When is an external antenna used inside a building?
A. only when using 2.4 GHz
B. only when using 5 GHz
C. when it provides the required coverage
D. only when using Mobility Express
Correct Answer: C
Question 8
An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which command set is required?
A. standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 preempt
B. standby version 2 standby 300 priority 110 standby 300 preempt
C. standby 300 priority 110 standby 300 timers 1 110
D. standby version 2 standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 preempt
Correct Answer: B
Question 9
How can an engineer prevent basic replay attacks from people who try to brute force a system via REST API?
A. Add a timestamp to the request in the API header.
B. Use a password hash.
C. Add OAuth to the request in the API header.
D. Use HTTPS.
Correct Answer: A
Question 10
When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?
A. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value
B. when a stack member fails
C. when the stack primary is reset
D. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack
Correct Answer: C
Conclusion
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- 789
- SPOTO
- 2022-05-26 10:00
Cisco 300-610 exam validates a candidate’s ability to test your knowledge of data center infrastructure design, including network, compute, storage network and automation.
To pass the 300-610 DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure, a considerable amount of practices should be necessary. SPOTO intends to enable you to succeed in the test by offering all the relevant Cisco 300-610 exam dumps to you.
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Question 1
When planning to deploy a load-balancing service as a managed node, which ACI configuration must be included?
A. BGP ECMP
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 device package
C. inline load-balancing device
D. ITD
Correct Answer: B
Question 2
An engineer is installing a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch with F2-Series /O Module. The company's strict security policy requires that the port be in-band. The engineer must also keep these considerations in mind:
1. The customer's security requirements mandate the use of a secure management mechanism that supports authentication and encryption.
2. The port should support management over IP.
Which port type must be used to meet these requirements?
A. Ethernet port
B. connectivity management port
C. management port
D. console port
Correct Answer: C
Question 3
An engineer must design a secondary site to prevent a catastrophic primary site failure. The applications must communicate across sites via the data link layer of the OSI model. The Layer 3 transport that is available for this solution consists of 10-Gb connections over Layer 3.
Which two solutions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS
B. VXLAN EVPN
C. OTV
D. vPC
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: BD
Question 4
A network engineer must select a high availability feature for their data center. The solution must ensure network resilience, reduce network instability for Layer 3 routing protocols, and meet these requirements:
1. The device must notify its neighbors when the control plane is undergoing a restart
2. The solution must suppress routing flaps in case of stateful switchovers
Which solution must be implemented?
A. BFD
B. HSRP
C. ISSU
D. NSF
Correct Answer: D
Question 5
An engineer must design Layer 2 connectivity for a subnet between two data centers. The engineer must ensure seamless host mobility and optimal first-hop routing. Which attribute must be synchronized across all data centers to achieve this goal?
A. anycast gateway MAC
B. multicast group
C. NX-OS version
D. DCNM to manage both fabrics
Correct Answer: A
Question 6
A customer deploys 32 virtualization hosts in a Cisco UCS domain. All hosts run in the same cluster and have identical hardware specifications. The operating system requires that all firmware is consistent across the hosts for driver support. The customer must provision additional interfaces later for expandability. Which feature of Cisco UCS Manager meets these requirements?
A. Initial vNIC Template
B. Initial Service Profile Template
C. Updating vNIC Template
D. Updating Service Profile Template
Correct Answer: D
Question 7
A set of virtual machines must be live migrated from a data center to a disaster recovery site. The data center and disaster recovery sites are connected through an Inter-Pod Network topology. The gateway address of the virtual machine is the same across the data center and disaster recovery. Which Cisco Nexus feature supports this requirement?
A. FabricPath
B. VXLAN EVPN
C. FHRP
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: B
Question 8
An engineer must connect a Cisco UCS B-Series based system to an existing large storage area network fabric. The deployment must support hardware-based load balancing, prevent Fibre Channel domain ID exhaustion, and enable all blade servers to be in the same VSAN. Which set of actions meets the requirements?
A. Configure Ethernet end-host automatic load balancing on the fabric interconnect. Set NL port mode on the SAN switch.
B. Place all interfaces that face the fabric interconnects in the same VSAN. Disable zoning for the VSAN.
C. Enable Fibre Channel end-host mode on the fabric interconnect and NPIV mode on the SAN switch. Create an F Port channel that faces the fabric interconnect.
D. Connect the fabric interconnect to the E Ports on the SAN switch. Create a SAN port channel.
Correct Answer: C
Question 9
A SAN fabric is built between a pair of Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. The requirement is for the ISL to use the VSAN ID to forward traffic from multiple VSANs across the same physical link. Additionally, the Fibre Channel trace feature must be supported. Which ISL interface parameters are required to meet these requirements?
A. switchport mode E switchport mode trunk vsan
B. switchport mode TE switchport mode trunk vsan
C. switchport mode TE switchport mode trunk
D. switchport mode E switchport mode trunk
Correct Answer: A
Question 10
A company is using Cisco UCS and wants a network orchestration solution to meet these requirements:
1. centrally manage compute and storage platforms
2. reduce the time it takes to detect an outage
3. easily exchange data with TAC to reduce resolution times
The company does not have in-house knowledge about scripting. Which solution must the company choose?
A. Cisco HyperFlex
B. Cisco DCNM
C. Cisco Intersight
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D
Conclusion
CCNP 300-610 dumps are sure to help you understand the test better. You will quickly acquire the abilities that will help you succeed on the test and in the job if you practice more.
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- 2022-05-25 10:00
Cisco 300-410 exam validates a candidate’s ability to deploy and troubleshoot advanced routing technologies and services, including Layer 3, VPN services, infrastructure security, infrastructure services, and infrastructure automation.
To pass the 300-410 ENARSI Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services, a great number of practices should be required. SPOTO aims to help you to succeed in the exam by supplying all the necessary Cisco 300-410 exam dumps to you.
Now, assess yourself by the practice test below. If you need more 300-410 dumps, contact us with the lowest price.
Question 1
What are two MPLS label characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. The label edge router swaps labels on the received packets.
B. Labels are imposed in packets after the Layer 3 header.
C. LDP uses TCP for reliable delivery of information.
D. An MPLS label is a short identifier that identifies a forwarding equivalence class.
E. A maximum of two labels can be imposed on an MPLS packet
Correct Answer: CD
Question 2
What is a function of BFD?
A. failure detection dependent on routing protocols and media types
B. peer recovery after a Layer 2 adjacency failure
C. failure detection independent of routing protocols and media types
D. peer recovery after a Layer 3 protocol adjacency failure
Correct Answer: C
Question 3
How is VPN routing information distributed in an MPLS network?
A. It is controlled using of VPN target communities.
B. The top level of the customer data packet directs it to the correct CE device.
C. It is established using VPN IPsec peers.
D. It is controlled through the use of RD.
Correct Answer: A
Question 4
Which function does LDP provide in an MPLS topology?
A. It exchanges routes for MPLS VPNs across different VRFs.
B. It provides a means for LSRs to exchange IP routes.
C. It provides hop-by-hop forwarding in an MPLS topology for LSRs.
D. It enables a MPLS topology to connect multiple VPNs to P routers.
Correct Answer: C
Question 5
An engineer creates a Cisco DNA Center cluster with three nodes, but all the services are running on one host node. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Enable service distribution from the Systems 360 page.
B. Restore the link on the switch interface that is connected to a cluster link on the Cisco DNA Center.
C. Click the master host node with al the services and select services to be moved to other hosts.
D. Click system updates, and upgrade to the latest version of Cisco DNA Center.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6
An engineer configured Reverse Path Forwarding on an interface and noticed that the routes are dropped when a route lookup fails on that interface for a prefix that is available in the routing table. Which interface configuration resolves the issue?
A. ip verify unicast source reachable-via allow-default
B. ip verify unicast source reachable-via l2-src
C. ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx
D. ip verify unicast source reachable-via any
Correct Answer: D
Question 7
After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for several service providers. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local networks to all SP neighbors?
A. ip as-path access-list 1 permit.*
!
router bgp 45123
neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out
B. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^45123$
!
router bgp 45123
neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out
C. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^45123
!
router bgp 45123
neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out
D. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^$
!
router bgp 45123
neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out
Correct Answer: D
Question 8
What is the function of BFD?
A. It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type.
B. It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs.
C. It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type.
D. It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments.
Correct Answer: A
Question 9
Which table is used to map the packets in an MPLS LSP that exit from the same interface, via the same next hop, and have the same queuing policies?
A. RIB
B. CEF
C. LDP
D. FEC
Correct Answer: D
Question 10
An engineer received a ticket about a router that has reloaded. The monitoring system graphs show different traffic patterns between logical and physical interfaces when the router is rebooted. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Configure the snmp ifindex persist command globally.
B. Clear the logical interfaces with snmp ifindex clear command
C. Configure the snmp ifindex persist command on the physical interfaces.
D. Trigger a new snmpwalk from the monitoring system to synchronize interface OIDs.
Correct Answer: A
Conclusion
CCNP 300-410 dumps are guaranteed to help you have a better understanding of the exam. By practicing more, you will soon master the skills that will help you succeed on the exam and on the job.