Today's mid-level networking engineers, network administrators, network support technicians, and help desk technicians need a wider set of skills to be successful in their careers and to use the potential of network automation to scale and protect their networks. The CCNP and CCIE Company Core certifications educate candidates how to install, troubleshoot, protect, and automate enterprise-wide wired and wireless networks. Passing the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies Exam 350-401 will need much study. SPOTO wishes to assist you in passing the test by providing you with the necessary Cisco 350-401 exam dumps. Use the following practice exam to evaluate yourself. If you desire extra 350-401 exam dumps, please contact us for the lowest pricing available.   Question 1 An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?   A. service timestamps log uptime B. logging buffer C. logging host D. terminal monitor   Correct Answer: D   Question 2 Which signal strength and noise values meet the minimum SNR for voice networks?   A. signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm B. signal strength -68 dBm, noise 89 dBm C. signal strength -66 dBm, noise 90 dBm D. signal strength -67 dBm, noise 91 dBm   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 How do cloud deployments differ from on-premises deployments?   A. Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments. B. Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments C. Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments. D. Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments.   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?   A. provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration B. performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks C. used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches D. in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node   Correct Answer: C     Question 5 What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?   A. It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network. B. It allows LISP to be applied as a network virtualization overlay though encapsulation. C. It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router. D. It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 In which two ways does the routing protocol OSPF differ from EIGRP? (Choose two.)   A. OSPF supports an unlimited number of hops. EIGRP supports a maximum of 255 hops. B. OSPF provides shorter convergence time than EIGRP. C. OSPF is distance vector protocol. EIGRP is a link-state protocol. D. OSPF supports only equal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing. E. OSPF supports unequal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports only equal-cost load balancing.   Correct Answer: AD   Question 7 When is an external antenna used inside a building?   A. only when using 2.4 GHz B. only when using 5 GHz C. when it provides the required coverage D. only when using Mobility Express   Correct Answer: C   Question 8 An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which command set is required?   A. standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 preempt B. standby version 2 standby 300 priority 110 standby 300 preempt C. standby 300 priority 110 standby 300 timers 1 110 D. standby version 2 standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 preempt   Correct Answer: B   Question 9 How can an engineer prevent basic replay attacks from people who try to brute force a system via REST API?   A. Add a timestamp to the request in the API header. B. Use a password hash. C. Add OAuth to the request in the API header. D. Use HTTPS.   Correct Answer: A     Question 10 When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?   A. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value B. when a stack member fails C. when the stack primary is reset D. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack   Correct Answer: C    Conclusion Cisco Certified Network Associate 350-401 dumps from SPOTO help candidates understand the exam thoroughly. You'll have more work options and a better chance of earning a higher pay.

Cisco 300-610 exam validates a candidate’s ability to test your knowledge of data center infrastructure design, including network, compute, storage network and automation.   To pass the 300-610 DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure, a considerable amount of practices should be necessary. SPOTO intends to enable you to succeed in the test by offering all the relevant Cisco 300-610 exam dumps to you.   Now, evaluate yourself with the practice exam below. If you need more 300-610 dumps, contact us with the lowest pricing.   Question 1 When planning to deploy a load-balancing service as a managed node, which ACI configuration must be included?   A. BGP ECMP B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 device package C. inline load-balancing device D. ITD   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 An engineer is installing a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch with F2-Series /O Module. The company's strict security policy requires that the port be in-band. The engineer must also keep these considerations in mind: 1. The customer's security requirements mandate the use of a secure management mechanism that supports authentication and encryption. 2. The port should support management over IP. Which port type must be used to meet these requirements?   A. Ethernet port B. connectivity management port C. management port D. console port   Correct Answer: C   Question 3 An engineer must design a secondary site to prevent a catastrophic primary site failure. The applications must communicate across sites via the data link layer of the OSI model. The Layer 3 transport that is available for this solution consists of 10-Gb connections over Layer 3. Which two solutions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)   A. IS-IS B. VXLAN EVPN C. OTV D. vPC E. OSPF   Correct Answer: BD   Question 4 A network engineer must select a high availability feature for their data center. The solution must ensure network resilience, reduce network instability for Layer 3 routing protocols, and meet these requirements: 1. The device must notify its neighbors when the control plane is undergoing a restart 2. The solution must suppress routing flaps in case of stateful switchovers Which solution must be implemented?   A. BFD B. HSRP C. ISSU D. NSF   Correct Answer: D   Question 5 An engineer must design Layer 2 connectivity for a subnet between two data centers. The engineer must ensure seamless host mobility and optimal first-hop routing. Which attribute must be synchronized across all data centers to achieve this goal?   A. anycast gateway MAC B. multicast group C. NX-OS version D. DCNM to manage both fabrics   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 A customer deploys 32 virtualization hosts in a Cisco UCS domain. All hosts run in the same cluster and have identical hardware specifications. The operating system requires that all firmware is consistent across the hosts for driver support. The customer must provision additional interfaces later for expandability. Which feature of Cisco UCS Manager meets these requirements?   A. Initial vNIC Template B. Initial Service Profile Template C. Updating vNIC Template D. Updating Service Profile Template   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 A set of virtual machines must be live migrated from a data center to a disaster recovery site. The data center and disaster recovery sites are connected through an Inter-Pod Network topology. The gateway address of the virtual machine is the same across the data center and disaster recovery. Which Cisco Nexus feature supports this requirement?   A. FabricPath B. VXLAN EVPN C. FHRP D. VPLS   Correct Answer: B   Question 8 An engineer must connect a Cisco UCS B-Series based system to an existing large storage area network fabric. The deployment must support hardware-based load balancing, prevent Fibre Channel domain ID exhaustion, and enable all blade servers to be in the same VSAN. Which set of actions meets the requirements?   A. Configure Ethernet end-host automatic load balancing on the fabric interconnect. Set NL port mode on the SAN switch. B. Place all interfaces that face the fabric interconnects in the same VSAN. Disable zoning for the VSAN. C. Enable Fibre Channel end-host mode on the fabric interconnect and NPIV mode on the SAN switch. Create an F Port channel that faces the fabric interconnect. D. Connect the fabric interconnect to the E Ports on the SAN switch. Create a SAN port channel.   Correct Answer: C   Question 9 A SAN fabric is built between a pair of Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. The requirement is for the ISL to use the VSAN ID to forward traffic from multiple VSANs across the same physical link. Additionally, the Fibre Channel trace feature must be supported. Which ISL interface parameters are required to meet these requirements?   A. switchport mode E switchport mode trunk vsan B. switchport mode TE switchport mode trunk vsan C. switchport mode TE switchport mode trunk D. switchport mode E switchport mode trunk   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 A company is using Cisco UCS and wants a network orchestration solution to meet these requirements: 1. centrally manage compute and storage platforms 2. reduce the time it takes to detect an outage 3. easily exchange data with TAC to reduce resolution times The company does not have in-house knowledge about scripting. Which solution must the company choose?   A. Cisco HyperFlex B. Cisco DCNM C. Cisco Intersight D. Cisco UCS Central   Correct Answer: D   Conclusion CCNP 300-610 dumps are sure to help you understand the test better. You will quickly acquire the abilities that will help you succeed on the test and in the job if you practice more.

Cisco 300-410 exam validates a candidate’s ability to deploy and troubleshoot advanced routing technologies and services, including Layer 3, VPN services, infrastructure security, infrastructure services, and infrastructure automation.   To pass the 300-410 ENARSI Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services, a great number of practices should be required. SPOTO aims to help you to succeed in the exam by supplying all the necessary Cisco 300-410 exam dumps to you.   Now, assess yourself by the practice test below. If you need more 300-410 dumps, contact us with the lowest price.   Question 1 What are two MPLS label characteristics? (Choose two.)   A. The label edge router swaps labels on the received packets. B. Labels are imposed in packets after the Layer 3 header. C. LDP uses TCP for reliable delivery of information. D. An MPLS label is a short identifier that identifies a forwarding equivalence class. E. A maximum of two labels can be imposed on an MPLS packet   Correct Answer: CD   Question 2 What is a function of BFD?   A. failure detection dependent on routing protocols and media types B. peer recovery after a Layer 2 adjacency failure C. failure detection independent of routing protocols and media types D. peer recovery after a Layer 3 protocol adjacency failure   Correct Answer: C   Question 3 How is VPN routing information distributed in an MPLS network?   A. It is controlled using of VPN target communities. B. The top level of the customer data packet directs it to the correct CE device. C. It is established using VPN IPsec peers. D. It is controlled through the use of RD.   Correct Answer: A   Question 4 Which function does LDP provide in an MPLS topology?   A. It exchanges routes for MPLS VPNs across different VRFs. B. It provides a means for LSRs to exchange IP routes. C. It provides hop-by-hop forwarding in an MPLS topology for LSRs. D. It enables a MPLS topology to connect multiple VPNs to P routers.   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 An engineer creates a Cisco DNA Center cluster with three nodes, but all the services are running on one host node. Which action resolves this issue?   A. Enable service distribution from the Systems 360 page. B. Restore the link on the switch interface that is connected to a cluster link on the Cisco DNA Center. C. Click the master host node with al the services and select services to be moved to other hosts. D. Click system updates, and upgrade to the latest version of Cisco DNA Center.   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 An engineer configured Reverse Path Forwarding on an interface and noticed that the routes are dropped when a route lookup fails on that interface for a prefix that is available in the routing table. Which interface configuration resolves the issue?   A. ip verify unicast source reachable-via allow-default B. ip verify unicast source reachable-via l2-src C. ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx D. ip verify unicast source reachable-via any   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for several service providers. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local networks to all SP neighbors?   A. ip as-path access-list 1 permit.* ! router bgp 45123 neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out B. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^45123$ ! router bgp 45123 neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out C. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^45123 ! router bgp 45123 neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out D. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^$ ! router bgp 45123 neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out   Correct Answer: D   Question 8 What is the function of BFD?   A. It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type. B. It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs. C. It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type. D. It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments.   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 Which table is used to map the packets in an MPLS LSP that exit from the same interface, via the same next hop, and have the same queuing policies?   A. RIB B. CEF C. LDP D. FEC   Correct Answer: D Question 10 An engineer received a ticket about a router that has reloaded. The monitoring system graphs show different traffic patterns between logical and physical interfaces when the router is rebooted. Which action resolves the issue?   A. Configure the snmp ifindex persist command globally. B. Clear the logical interfaces with snmp ifindex clear command C. Configure the snmp ifindex persist command on the physical interfaces. D. Trigger a new snmpwalk from the monitoring system to synchronize interface OIDs.   Correct Answer: A   Conclusion CCNP 300-410 dumps are guaranteed to help you have a better understanding of the exam. By practicing more, you will soon master the skills that will help you succeed on the exam and on the job.  

The Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification is an internationally recognized project management certificate that tests an individual's ability to manage the people, procedures, and business goals involved with a professional project. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), which administers the certification, there are over one million PMP holders worldwide. It applies to almost every area, including healthcare, construction, information technology (IT), and business. You’ve taken the choice to acquire your Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification. It’s a huge step in your career, and it may be a time-consuming and tough trip. However, this accreditation from Project Management Institute (PMI)® is well worth the effort. SPOTO provides PMP dumps according to the most recent PMBOK Guide - Sixth Edition and the PMP Examination Content Outline 2021.   Question 1 An agile project is running activities to define the minimum viable product (MVP) During the session, the project manager identifies some mandatory regulations, but there is no consensus to include these regulations in the MVP because it may extend the duration of the project. What should the project manager do?   A. Share with the participants the need to focus only on product functionality. B. Ask the project sponsor to add more time to the project. C. Train the team on the new regulations as requested by management. D. Get commitment from the team to include all of the required regulations.   Correct Answer: D   Question 2 A new project manager is planning an information security project for a company that resides in different countries. What is the first step the project manager should take to gather customer requirements?   A. Request relevant stakeholders to conduct an analysis and reach consensus independently. B. Conduct a stakeholder analysis to identify how regional policies may influence needs. C. Conduct project planning meetings in one location with relevant stakeholders. D. Conduct a project scope review workshop with relevant stakeholders.   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 The project schedule is falling behind and the project manager observes that the project team seems to be spending the majority of their time writing documentation instead of performing project tasks. What should the project manager do to help ensure that the team focuses on project tasks?   A. Review and adapt the appropriate project artifacts. B. Assign a team member to handle the documentation activities. C. Save all documentation activities until the end of the project. D. Coach the project team to complete the project documentation activities.   Correct Answer: A   Question 4 During the retrospective ceremony, the agile team is talking about the product owner's expectations not being met. What should the project manager have done at the beginning of the project?   A. Communicated project vision and sprint goals clearly to the team. B. Defined the expected agile team contribution in the creation of the backlog. C. Defined the team ground rules and shared project vision. D. Assessed the capabilities of the agile team and planned for the required training.   Correct Answer: A   Question 5 While managing a project, the project manager has just noticed that the last several monthly invoices have been challenged by the client when they were clearly defined The actual invoice payments received have also been late and were outside of the contracted payment schedule. Recent invoices have only been partially paid. What should the project manager do?   A. Add nonpayment to the issue log and keep tracking payments. B. Conduct a meeting with the project team to update the procurement management plan. C. Hold a meeting with the client to address the issue. D. Review past projects for payment-related lessons learned.   Correct Answer: C   Question 6 Five agile teams working together on a product recently performed release planning Midway through the project, each team showed that their progress was on track. When all of the teams integrated at the product level, many integration issues were observed. The overall product release progress declined with predictions showing the committed content will not be able to be accomplished. What should the project manager have done differently?   A. Formed a separate quality assurance team to test all items coming from each team at the end of each sprint. B. Ensured frequent and continuous integration of work to obtain early feedback and continuous learning C. Arranged an online session on the integration concept and suggested tools to the teams D. Performed a Scrum of Scrums on a regular basis to help the teams remove impediments   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 During project execution, the project manager notices that the work performance reports have deteriorated drastically in less than two weeks. The project team in country A is complaining about delays resulting from holidays occurring in country B that have impacted their project team. How should the project manager handle this situation?   A. Implement fast-tracking to compress the schedule and improve the SPI. B. Perform conflict management using the project's resource management plan. C. Review the risk management plan to evaluate the probability and impact of these delays. D. Implement cashing to compress the schedule and mprove the schedule performance index (SPI).   Correct Answer: A   Question 8 An organization is transitioning to agile and a project has been chosen as a pilot The assigned project manager only has experience using predictive approaches, but the project manager is now required to use agile approaches with the help of an agile coach During the retrospective of the fifth sprint, the project team complains that many obstacles exist with the organization that are creating project delays and rework. What should the project manager do in this situation?   A. Promote collaboration to help remove the obstacles for the team. B. Perform a root cause analysis during the standup meetings. C. Create a dedicated sprint to solve the obstacles with the team. D. Include impediment resolutions during daily standup meetings.   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 An organization has historically executed most projects using a predictive approach The organization now wants to change over to an agile approach. Which strategy will be useful to effectively help prepare the organization for this change?   A. Take a big bang approach of moving the whole organization to agile at once. B. Improve organizational readiness by addressing impediments to agile in the organization. C. Add multiple layers of managers who will be accountable for the agile execution. D. Create a task force of executives who will monitor agile projects on a daily basis.   Correct Answer: B   Question 10 A high-performing team member's performance has been consistently increasing over the past year, leaving other peers behind The project manager has been reluctant to publicly recognize the team member's contributions for fear of discouraging others The project manager is also concerned that the team member may leave if not rewarded for the contributions made. What should the project manager do?   A. Promote the higher performing team member to a higher position. B. Remind the high-performing team member to focus on shared rewards rather than individual rewards. C. Request the high-performing team member to mentor the other team members. D. Reward the high-performing team member privately to avoid team disruption.   Correct Answer: B     Conclusion PMP training and dumps provided by SPOTO help you learn from industry experts and pass the PMP exam on your first attempt.

What is the CCIE Security? The Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert (CCIE) security certification is an expert-level certification offered by Cisco. It is generally acknowledged as the most renowned certification available in information technology. Your experience and understanding of advanced security solutions are put to the test and validated by earning the CCIE Security certification. This certification should be a top priority for candidates interested in pursuing a career in the field of cyber security. You will get the high-level knowledge and abilities necessary to deploy cyber security services within the business if you choose to pursue the CCIE Security certification study route. What is covered in the CCIE Security exam? The CCIE Security certification confirms your competence in dealing with complicated security solutions. To acquire the CCIE Security certification, you must pass two examinations: a qualifying exam covering core security technologies and a hands-on lab exam covering security technologies and solutions spanning the whole network lifecycle, from design and deployment to operation and optimization. CCIE Security training To succeed on both tests, you must thoroughly acquaint yourself with both exam subjects. Our CCIE security training course will prepare you for the SCOR 350-701 and Lab exams (v6.0). The SCOR 350-701 (v1.0) test, as well as senior-level security employment chances, will be prepared for by CCIE security online classes. This test is required to get the CCNP and CCIE security certifications. The CCIE security course will provide you with the knowledge and skills required to deploy existing Cisco security solutions. If you have these master skills, you will be able to provide advanced threat protection against cybersecurity attacks. The new CCIE Security v6.0 Certification course is designed to prepare individuals for expert-level security-related employment responsibilities while also distinguishing them as technical leaders. The CCIE Security (v6.0) course covers programmability and automation. All theoretical lectures will be followed immediately by hands-on laboratory practices, which will be accessible 24 hours a day, seven days a week. What does the CCIE Security training provide? The primary objective of the CCIE Security training program is to enable you to describe security concepts and strategies, TCP/IP, network application, and endpoint attacks, Cisco ASA, Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall, email content security features and functions, web content security features and functions, VPNs, cryptography solutions and algorithms, Cisco IOS Software Layer 2 and Layer 2 data plane control, Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise and Stealtwatch, and Cisco Stealthwatch Stealthwatch. You will learn the skills and knowledge essential to design, execute, operate, and optimize complex network conditions via the CCIE Security v6.0 lab exam course. In addition, you will obtain practical experience with network automation and network programmability. The new CCIE Security certification program consists of an exam that qualifies you for expert-level professional responsibilities in security technology. CCIE Security now includes programmability and automation tools to help you scale security solutions. Prerequisite The CCIE Security certification does not have any official requirements. However, it would be advantageous if you have a solid understanding of the test subjects before appearing for the exam. Before taking the CCIE security certification, applicants should have between five and seven years of experience developing, installing, operating, and optimizing security technologies and solutions. Conclusion SPOTO would guarantee that all questions and answers in SPOTO are authentic and correct, unlike many other companies competing with low-quality and irrelevant inquiries. After purchasing the training, you may be confident that you will pass the tests if you study the SPOTO materials properly.Simply stop by to learn more about SPOTO's training courses.      

For professionals in project management, the PMP® certification is the gold standard. PMP training determines the significance, criticality, and frequency of each knowledge, task, and skill required to function according to industry standards. The PMP course is aligned with the latest PMP Examination Content Outline 2021 and covers the most recent best practices outlined in the PMBOK Guide - 6th Edition. In addition, it addresses current trends, issues regarding customization, and the necessary qualities a Project Management practitioner must possess.Due to the necessity of project managers, they should take required courses in order to pass the PMP exam, which SOPTO may assist with. You will receive the best possible online training for the PMP exam, as well as a money-back guarantee if you do not pass. Our course covers subjects such as building a high-performing team, initiating the project, accomplishing the task, keeping the team on track, and keeping the company in mind. You will receive 35 contact hours of on-demand video, practice tests, free downloadable tools, the most recent PMBOK Guide 7th eBook, and PMI digital materials. We are committed to assisting you in passing the PMP exam on the first attempt. ✔Theory Training Aligned With PMBOK ✔Obtain PMI Approval ✔100% Cover Real PMP Dumps ✔100% Pass Exam at First Try ✔PMI Certified Professional Instructors ✔100% Money-Back ✔Guarantee Access to Training Video Anytime Anywhere ✔Latest Exam Feedbacks SPOTO would consist of a technical team with 17 years of experience in IT Certification exam preparation and reference materials such as study guides, questions and answers, practice tests, and more. SPOTO Club has enjoyed a great deal of success over the years, and it has formed a close partnership with Tencent.com. Exam preparation for Cisco CCNA, CCNP, CCIE, PMP, CompTIA+, Microsoft, Redhat, Huawei, Linux, Aruba, Oracle, and Palo Alto is our specializations. At SPOTO Club, a team of seasoned specialists will be present to allow you to pass these exams on your first attempt. They ensure that you will have an in-depth understanding of the key information points following significant preparation using their study materials. After completing SPOTO's PMP course, you will be prepared to pass the PMP exam and have the necessary knowledge, tools, and resources to further your career. The application is the initial step toward earning the Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification. Prior to submitting an application for the PMP® certification, you must satisfy specified eligibility requirements, including domain experience levels, educational prerequisites, etc. Using the SPOTO PMP Application Service, your application will be approved. ✔Learn to develop WBS, and your project will be half as successful! ✔Earned value management is a crucial strategy for cost control. ✔Regulations and flowcharts for project management optimize cost, resource, and duration. ✔The most typical project cost estimation management strategies. ✔For project quality management, there are seven different types of control tools. ✔Why is it necessary to plan and control a project according to a schedule? ✔How can a project manager properly track, review, and report on the progress of a project? ✔What steps should project managers take when confronted with project risks? ✔Project managers' tools and approaches for gathering requirements. ✔Five performance appraisal approaches provide you with more flexibility in team management. ✔PDM, CPM, and network diagram. Explanations of CCM and other technical terms. In addition, SPOTO Club would guarantee that all questions and answers in SPOTO Club are authentic and correct, unlike many other companies competing with low-quality and irrelevant inquiries. After purchasing the study dumps, you may be confident that you will pass the tests if you study the SPOTO Club materials properly.Simply stop by to learn more about SPOTO's PMP training courses and dumps.  

Cisco DC Core Technologies or DCCOR 350-601 is a CCIE and CCNP level test; you must pass this exam if you plan to take the Cisco DC Lab or are preparing for the CCNP Data Center certification. It is one of the two mandatory examinations for CCNP certification; the other test may be one of five data center concentration exams. The lack of a CCNA Data Center test in the more recent exam-style means specialties begin with the CCNP certification.   SPOTO provides the essential CCNP 350-601 study materials and training. Now, evaluate yourself using the sample test provided below. If you require additional 350-601 exam questions, please contact us for the lowest price.   Question 1 Which virtual MAC address is the default for HSRP version 2 group 10?   A. 0000.5E00.0110 B. 0000.0C9F.F00A C. 3716.1350.1C0A D. 0000.0C9F.F010   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 Which mroute state is created when Bidirectional PIM is deployed at a site?   A. *.G B. MVPN Type-6 C. MVPN Type-7 D. S.G   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 A small remote office is set to connect to the regional hub site via NSSA ASBR. Which type of LSA is sent to the remote office OSPF area?   A. type 7 LSA B. type 1 LSA C. type 5 LSA D. type 3 LSA   Correct Answer: A   Question 4 The engineer must configure SPAN on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch to get a capture of the traffic from these applications for an in-depth packet analysis. Which two SPAN characteristics must be considered? (Choose two.)   A. SPAN source ports can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions. B. The Ethernet, FC, vFC, port channel, SAN port channel can be used as SPAN source ports. C. A SPAN source port cannot be a destination SPAN port. D. Only Ethernet, FC, vFC, port channel port types can be used as SPAN source ports. E. The rx/tx option is available for VLAN or VSAN SPAN sessions.    Correct Answer: BC   Question 5 A customer has a requirement to deploy a cloud service and needs to have full control over the underlying OS, data and applications. Which cloud model meets this requirement?   A. MaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. IaaS   Correct Answer: D   Question 6 Due to a major version change, an engineer must perform a software upgrade on a Cisco Nexus Series switch. Which two technologies can be implemented to reduce disruptions to the network during the upgrade? (Choose two.)   A. vPC B. HSRP C. VDC D. MLAG E. PAgP    Correct Answer: AC   Question 7 What are two capabilities of the Cisco Network Assurance Engine? (Choose two.)   A. It validates that devices comply with network security policies. B. It predicts the impact of changes to the network. C. It predicts the network load on a data center. D. It ensures that network performance meets an SLA. E. It verifies the speed of network packet flows by using telemetry.   Correct Answer: AB   Question 8 What is an advantage of streaming telemetry over SNMP?   A. on-change traps sent to a receiver B. periodic push-based subscription messages C. periodic polling of the device status D. MD5-based authentication on polling   Correct Answer: B   Question 9 APIC EPG Resolution Immediacy is set to "Immediate". Which statement is true about the Deployment Immediacy for VMM domains associated to EPGs?   A. If "On demand" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware only when the first packet is received through the data path. B. It "Immediate" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware as soon as the leaf is booted. C. The "Immediate" and "On demand" options require a port group to be created on the VDS. D. If "On demand" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware only when the APIC detects a VM created in the EPG.   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 Which method must a network engineer use to upgrade the BIOS firmware or a Cisco UCS standalone C-Series rack mount server?   A. Use the U-ACPI Interface. B. Use the Cisco host upgrade utility. C. Use the Cisco hardware upgrade utility. D. Use the Cisco host firmware policy.   Correct Answer: B     Conclusion If you want to get your dream job in IT industry or be promoted, then passing CCNP 350-601 exam will help a lot. There are more CCNP 350-601 dumps on SPOTO.

To succeed in their professions and use the potential of network automation to scale and secure their networks, today's mid-level networking engineers, network administrators, network support technicians, and help desk technicians require a more extensive set of abilities. The CCNP and CCIE Company Core certifications teach you how to set up, diagnose, secure, and automate wired and wireless networks.   It will take a significant preparation to pass the 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies Exam. SPOTO aims to assist you in passing the exam by providing you with all of the Cisco 350-401 exam questions and answers you'll require.   Now evaluate yourself using the practice test provided below. If you require additional 350-401 test dumps, please get in touch with us for the best price.   Question 1 What does a YANG model provide?   A. standardized data structure independent of the transport protocols B. creation of transport protocols and their interaction with the OS C. user access to interact directly with the CLI of the device to receive or modify network configurations D. standardized data structure that can be used only with NETCONF or RESTCONF transport protocols   Correct Answer: A   Question 2 How do the RIB and the FIB differ?   A. RIB contains the interface for a destination, and the FIB contains the next hop information. B. FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the data plane. C. RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB. D. FIB contains routes learned through a dynamic routing protocol, and the RIB contains routes that are static or directly connected.   Correct Answer: C   Question 3 What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?   A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?   A. provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration B. performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks C. used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches D. in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 A customer wants to connect a device to an autonomous Cisco AP configured as a WGB. The WGB is configured properly; however, it fails to associate to a CAPWAP-enabled AP. Which change must be applied in the advanced WLAN settings to resolve this issue?   A. Disable FlexConnect local switching. B. Disable AAA override. C. Enable Aironet IE. D. Enable passive client.   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 How do stratum levels relate to the distance from a time source?   A. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. B. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. C. Stratum 15 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. D. Stratum 15 devices are an authoritative time source.   Correct Answer: B   Question 7 What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)   A. LED lights B. rogue AP C. radar D. fire alarm E. conventional oven Correct Answer: BC   Question 8 When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?   A. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value B. when a stack member fails C. when the stack primary is reset D. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack   Correct Answer: C   Question 9 What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?   A. The number of hops takes to reach the authoritative time source. B. The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server. C. The amount of offset between the device clock and true time. D. The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 What is YANG used for?   A. scraping data via CLI B. processing SNMP read-only polls C. describing data models D. providing a transport for network configuration data between client and server   Correct Answer: C     Conclusion SPOTO’s Cisco Certified Network Associate 350-401 dumps assist candidates in fully comprehending the exam. You’ll have more job opportunities and a better chance of making more money.

Whether you're a newcomer to the sector or an experienced professional, knowing the fundamentals of Microsoft Azure will help you jump-start your career and prepare you to dive further into the numerous technological options offered by Azure. The certification verifies your fundamental understanding of cloud services and how they are delivered through Azure. Candidates should have a fundamental knowledge of cloud computing fundamentals, as well as Azure services, workloads, security, privacy, pricing, and support.   Now that we've established the critical nature of Azure Certification, we recommend that you take the first step toward preparing for Azure Certification.   1. Begin with Small Steps Even if you are completely familiar with every aspect, there is a potential that you will be unsure of where to begin. Without a doubt, it is suggested that you start with the AZ-900 Azure Fundamentals exam. The Microsoft Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 Exam will assist you in comprehending the operation of Microsoft Azure without providing excessively detailed technology scripts. The Microsoft AZ-900 examinations place a premium on basic concepts over testing methodology.   2. Review the Exam Outline Thoroughly Indeed, the first and most important thing to do once you've chosen an exam is to read the test guidelines. Additionally, Microsoft gives all pertinent information on the certification page to assist in preparing. This section contains information about the talents being assessed, the requirements, the test strategy, and the exam materials. Additionally, Microsoft provides a learning path, a guide to training and certification, and policies to aid you in focusing on and studying the suitable topics.       3. Analyze the Exam Format  Having a firm grasp of the exam style and question types before sitting for the exam can be beneficial. Microsoft specifies the question types for the various exam formats in each test. As a result, it is vital to understand the multiple types of questions and how to answer them. This will assist you in obtaining the maximum number of points possible for each question. While Microsoft provides official practice tests, you can also locate some reputable Microsoft Azure exam questions to aid your preparation.    4. Video Training and Courses In general, you'll find various video training courses online that give video-based preparation for the Azure exam. We recommend that you enroll in the SPOTO courses and training; they are the perfect match.    5. Instruction by an Instructor Once you've compiled the list, Microsoft also offers a variety of self-study learning tools to assist you in preparing for Microsoft Azure Certification examinations. Indeed, the classroom experience is highly effective when combined with the appropriate mix of trainers. However, you can combine different courses for various technologies with in-person or online training from SPOTO.   6. Must Conduct Practice Examinations Additionally, Microsoft Azure Certification examinations include some authentic practice tests. Also, the practice test is regarded as an excellent tool for quantifying your learning curve and determine where you are in your preparation cycle. SPOTO's test demos and dependable study tools for Microsoft Azure Certification are highly recommended.   Conclusion Microsoft Azure certification is at the top of the heap, and it's a massive plus on so many levels. A Microsoft Azure career will never degrade in value, instead, it will continue to expand faster. Whether you want to boost your candidate’s attractiveness or, more likely, dramatically advance your career. This qualification could be the difference between success and failure. Not only do you need to learn how to design, manage, and protect Azure cloud systems to become certified and land a job, but you also need practical hands-on experience. SPOTO provides mock examinations and practice papers to help you prepare for the Azure certification exam.