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PMP Certification Exam Answers Solutions for Exam Success, Project Management Professional Certification | SPOTO

Achieving PMP certification demonstrates your advanced project management skills and knowledge. SPOTO provides comprehensive PMP exam answers and solutions to ensure your success. Our up-to-date exam materials include hundreds of accurate exam questions and answers aligned with the latest exam objectives. Get unlimited access to practice tests, exam dumps with verified solutions, sample questions, and free quizzes to identify gaps and strengthen weak areas. SPOTO's exam simulator replicates the actual testing environment with timed, scored online exam questions and mock exams. Maximize your confidence and chances of passing the PMP exam on the first attempt with SPOTO's proven exam preparation resources.
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Question #1
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #2
Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
A. project documents updates
B. project management plan updates
C. change requests
D. work performance information
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #3
What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business
B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area
C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives
D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #4
When does risk monitoring and control occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #5
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #6
Quality metrics are an output of which process?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #7
"Tailoring" is defined as the:
A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor
B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service
C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications
D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #8
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #9
Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Project document updates
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Change requests
D. Deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #10
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #11
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment
B. Performance reporting
C. Bidder conferences
D. Reserve analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #12
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?
A. Acquisitions
B. Organizational theories
C. Team-building activities
D. Virtual teams
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #13
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan
B. The stakeholder register
C. Procurement documents
D. Stakeholder analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #14
A project can be defined as a:
A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
B. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
C. Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
D. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #15
Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?
A. Recommended corrective actions
B. Recommended preventive actions
C. Risk audits
D. Risk reassessments
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #16
Which of the following is a tool or technique for the Plan Procurements process?
A. Bidder conferences
B. Proposal evaluation techniques
C. Contract types
D. Contract change control systems
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #17
In project management, a temporary project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #18
Success is measured by benefits realization for a:
A. strategic plan
B. project
C. portfolio
D. program
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #19
What is a tool to improve team performance?
A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-location
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #20
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #21
Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)
D. Time and Material (T&M)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #22
A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
A. Resource calenda
B. Project organization chart
C. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #23
In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. project management plan,
D. project funding requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #24
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
A. 0
B. 0
C. 0
D. 1
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #25
During what process is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #26
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #27
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?
A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #28
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #29
- (Topic 5) Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Parametric estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #30
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
A. Risk monitoring and controlling
B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #31
- (Topic 5) Types of internal failure costs include:
A. inspections
B. equipment and training
C. lost business
D. reworking and scrapping
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #32
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #33
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate
B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #34
- (Topic 5) In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #35
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques
C. Earned value management
D. Group decision-making techniques
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #36
Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
A. Risk urgency assessment
B. Organizational process assets
C. Risk register
D. Schedule management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #37
A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:
A. budget at completion (BAC)
B. earned value management (EVM)
C. to-complete performance index
D. cost performance index
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #38
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #39
A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:
A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database
B. Historical information and the stakeholder register
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database
D. Project documents and historical information
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #40
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #41
What is the critical chain method?
A. A technique to calculate the theoretical early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates
B. A schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources
C. A schedule compression technique that analyzes cost and schedule trade-offs to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost
D. A technique to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #42
At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #43
- (Topic 5) During which process would you obtain stakeholders’ formal acceptance of the completed project scope?
A. Quality control
B. Scope verification
C. Scope control
D. Close project
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #44
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #45
An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:
A. Forecasting,
B. Brainstorming
C. Historical databases
D. Cost of quality
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #46
The cost of nonconformance in a project includes:
A. testing
B. rework
C. inspections
D. training
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #47
Which process requires implementation of approved changes?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Close Project or Phase
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #48
In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project schedule
D. Resource calendars
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #49
Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #50
The following is a network diagram for a project. What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-C-F-G-I
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-I
D. A-D-E-F-H-I
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #51
A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:
A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
B. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Report Performance
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #52
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Scope
D. Control Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #53
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?
A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #54
Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project’s scope, plans, and environment is an activity included in which of the following project management processes?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #55
Which of the following procurement processes results in the awarding of a procurement contract?
A. Administer Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements
D. Plan Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #56
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Mandatory
D. Internal
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #57
Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?
A. Cost of quality
B. Historical relationships
C. Project management software
D. Forecasting
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #58
Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?
A. Performance Measure
B. Baseline Schedule
C. Schedule Comparison
D. Variance Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #59
Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?
A. Project management
B. Program management
C. Portfolio management
D. Relationship management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #60
In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
A. Schedule
B. Quality
C. Communications
D. Cost
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #61
An output of the Manage Project Team process is:
A. project management plan updates
B. project staff assignments updates
C. team performance assessments
D. resource calendar updates
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #62
The Administer Procurements process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Executing
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #63
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:
A. Communication models
B. Stakeholder participation
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #64
An associate who calculates fees daily to support the department is doing which of the following?
A. Phase work
B. Project work
C. Lifecycle work
D. Operations work
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #65
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?
A. Project boundaries
B. Project constraints
C. Project assumptions
D. Project objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #66
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #67
In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Risk Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Plan Risk Responses
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #68
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline
B. Change requests
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #69
An input to the Identify Risks process is the:
A. Risk register
B. Risk probability and impact assessment
C. Communications management plan
D. Risk management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #70
Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process?
A. Risk response planning
B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Performance reporting
D. Manage stakeholders
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #71
- (Topic 5) A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed
B. Something that is tangible
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #72
Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management information system (PMIS)
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Scheduled network analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #73
Which of the following is a schematic display of the project’s schedule activities and the logical relationships among them?
A. Gantt chart
B. Project schedule network diagram
C. Project milestone list
D. Activity list
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #74
- (Topic 5) Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #75
Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution
B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)
C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request
D. Market demand and/or legal requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #76
Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control Charts
C. Pareto Chart
D. Histogram
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #77
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
A. cause and effect diagram
B. control chart
C. flowchart
D. histogram
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #78
Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?
A. Project Quality Plan
B. Project Schedule Network
C. Project Management Software
D. Project Scope Management Plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #79
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #80
A car company authorized a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages. With which of the following strategic considerations was this project mainly concerned?
A. Market demand
B. Legal requirements
C. Strategic Opportunity
D. Technological advance
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #81
- (Topic 5) Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
A. Acceptance of deliverables
B. Change requests
C. Project management plan updates
D. Benchmarking
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #82
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
A. Activity network diagrams
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #83
The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:
A. work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. schedule target
C. performance measurement baseline (PMB)
D. earned value baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #84
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #85
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. Cost right at the estimated value
B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #86
- (Topic 5) Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?
A. Procurement package
B. Negotiated settlements
C. Procurement file
D. Procurement management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #87
Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk management
D. Risk attitude
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #88
Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?
A. Brainstorming
B. Focus groups
C. Affinity diagram
D. Plurality
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #89
- (Topic 5) Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
A. buyers
B. sellers
C. business partners
D. product users
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #90
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #91
The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #92
Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Three-point
D. What-if scenario analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #93
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #94
- (Topic 5) Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
View answer
Correct Answer: D

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