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Latest Practice Exam Materials , PMI-CAPM Exam Questions 2024,Certified Associate in Project Management | SPOTO

SPOTO latest practice exam materials for the 2024 PMI-CAPM exam are designed to help you succeed with confidence. The PMI-CAPM certification, offered by the Project Management Institute, is a renowned credential for project management professionals. Our high-quality practice tests include mock exams, exam questions, and detailed exam answers to simulate the real exam environment. With our exam simulator and online exam questions, you can enhance your exam practice and preparation. Our resources cover a wide range of topics, including real exam questions and simulation exams, to ensure you're well-prepared for the challenges ahead. Prepare effectively, practice efficiently, and master the exam content with our trusted exam preparation materials. Dive into our exam sample questions and start your journey towards PMI-CAPM certification success today!
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Question #1
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysisD
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #2
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #3
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #4
Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #5
Which of following could be organizational process assets?
A. Historical information
B. Industry standards
C. Organization infrastructure
D. Marketplace conditions
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #6
Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?
A. Recommended corrective actions
B. Recommended preventive actions
C. Risk audits
D. Risk reassessments
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #7
Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?
A. Intranet sites
B. Voice mails
C. Video conferences
D. Press releases
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #8
Which of the following are the components of the scope baseline?
A. Project charter, project scope statement, and work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Project charter, project management plan, and plan procurement
C. Project scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and WBS dictionary
D. Project management plan, plan procurement, and contract administration
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #9
Which of the following buffers protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain?
A. Critical buffer
B. Project buffer
C. Duration buffer
D. Feeding buffer
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #10
Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk management
D. Risk attitude
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #11
Which of the following correctly lists the configuration management activities included in the Integrated Change Control process?
A. Configuration definition, configuration status accounting, configuration monitoring and control
B. Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, configuration verification and audit
C. Configuration identification, configuration status reporting, configuration verification and audit
D. Configuration definition, configuration status reporting, configuration monitoring and Control
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #12
Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?
A. Procurement package
B. Negotiated settlements
C. Procurement file
D. Procurement management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #13
Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?
A. Probabilistic
B. Most likely
C. Expected
D. Anticipated
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #14
Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decision in which everyone agrees on a single course of action?
A. Dictatorship
B. Majority
C. Plurality
D. Unanimity
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #15
Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?
A. Network reserve analysis
B. Critical chain method
C. Lead and lag adjustment
D. Critical path method
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #16
Which of the following is a schematic display of the project's schedule activities and the logical relationships among them?
A. Gantt chart
B. Project schedule network diagram
C. Project milestone list
D. Activity list
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #17
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?
A. Records management system
B. Expert judgment
C. Project management software
D. Issue log
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #18
Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing, front loading, or fast tracking
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #19
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #20
Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #21
Which of the following is an example of push communication?
A. Intranet sites
B. Video conferencing
C. Knowledge repositories
D. Press releases
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #22
Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project staff assignments
D. Performance reports
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #23
Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
A. Risk urgency assessment
B. Organizational process assets
C. Risk register
D. Schedule management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #24
Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?
A. Project document update
B. Control chart
C. Cost performance baseline
D. Organizational process asset update
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #25
Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?
A. Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-D
B. Begin-A-B-C-D-E-End
C. Begin-A-B-D-E-End A-C-D
D. Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-C
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #26
Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Activities
D. Activity Attributes
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #27
Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #28
Which of the following methods of performance review examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Earned value performance
B. Trend analysis
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #29
Which of the following processes are within the Initiating Process Group?
A. Develop Project Management Plan and Identify Stakeholders
B. Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Communications
C. Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders
D. Develop Project Charter and Develop Project Scope Statement
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #30
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?
A. Acquisitions
B. Organizational theories
C. Team-building activities
D. Virtual teams
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #31
Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?
A. Budget forecast
B. Variance analysis
C. Activity cost estimate
D. Three-point estimate
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #32
Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles although spending little or no time meeting face to face?
A. Co-location team
B. Virtual team
C. Departmental team
D. Consultant team
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #33
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #34
Who is responsible for developing the project management plan and all related component plans?
A. Project team
B. Portfolio manager
C. Project manager
D. Project management office
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #35
Who is responsible for reviewing change requests and approving or rejecting the change requests?
A. Change control board
B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Project sponsor
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #36
Which are the competing constraints that a project manager should address when tailoring a project?
A. Cost, scope, schedule
B. Sponsorship, risk, quality
C. Schedule, sponsorship, scope
D. Resources, quality, communication
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #37
Given the following information: Activity A takes one week. Activity B takes three weeks. Activity C takes two weeks. Activity D takes five weeks. Activity A starts at the same time as Activity
B. Activity C follows Activity B and Activity
A. Activity D follows Activity
C. How long will it take to complete the project?
A. 8 weeks
B. 9 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 11 weeks
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #38
The project team is using their current information, abilities, and experience to achieve project objectives; the team is also developing new experiences, and the project manager is ensuring that the team is documenting new learnings in order to contribute to organizational knowledge. In which process is the project team and project manager involved?
A. Direct and manage project work
B. Manage project knowledge
C. Develop team
D. Manage team
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #39
Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?
A. Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information
B. Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology
D. Glossary of common terminology, constraints derived from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #40
Two members of the team are having a conflict. The project manager decides that, in this case, the best solution is to bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the problem. Which technique should the project manager use?
A. Withdraw/Avoid
B. Smooth/Accommodate
C. Compromise/Reconcile
D. Collaborate/Problem Solve
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #41
Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?
A. Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements
B. Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements
C. Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors
D. Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #42
After defining activities in project schedule management, which processes should a project manager follow?
A. Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations
B. Estimate Activity Durations and Control Schedule
C. Develop Schedule and Control Schedule
D. Review Activities and Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #43
Which is an example of analogous estimating?
A. Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge
B. Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects
C. Estimates are created by analyzing data
D. Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #44
The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?
A. Prompt lists and data analysis
B. Reports and representations of uncertainty
C. Data analysis and risk audits
D. Interpersonal and team skills and project management information system
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #45
How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects than in traditional projects?
A. Less time spent on defining scope early on
B. More time spent on defining scope early on
C. Less time spent on scope management process
D. Project scope management is the same in all projects
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #46
In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?
A. A group of quality experts at specific times during the project
B. The project manager only
C. All team members throughout the project life cycle
D. Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #47
The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?
A. Technical project management skills
B. Time management skills
C. Strategic and business management skills
D. Leadership skills
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #48
A project manager is considering whether or not to procure a new vendor. What can the project manager use to determine a make-or-buy decision?
A. Data analysis
B. Interpersonal skills
C. Bidder conferences
D. Bid documents
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #49
Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?
A. Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills
B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings
C. Expert judgment, audits, and decision making
D. Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #50
Which are the most important competencies required for a project manager?
A. Leadership, bilingualism, experience, and technical knowledge
B. PMP certification, experience, technical knowledge, and post-graduate education
C. Leadership, strategic and business management, project management knowledge, and technical knowledge
D. Communication skills, project management knowledge, PMP certification, and availability to travel
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #51
Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?
A. Government standards
B. Organizational culture
C. Employee capabilities
D. Organizational knowledge bases
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #52
Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?
A. Market share brand recognition
B. Factory location
C. Local government regulation
D. Industry research
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #53
Which document can help a project manager to leverage historical project information?
A. Lessons learned register
B. Schedule baseline
C. Work performance data
D. Deliverable acceptance forms
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #54
In an agile and adaptive project, which scope management entity involves stakeholder engagement?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Create work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Scope Baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #55
According to the PMI Talent Triangle, leadership skills relate to the ability to:
A. understand the high-level overview of the organization
B. tailor traditional and agile tools for the project
C. work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery
D. guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #56
Which are required to create the schedule management plan?
A. Scope baseline, work breakdown structure (WBS), estimated costs, and milestone list
B. Resource management plan, organizational process assets, activity list, and business case
C. Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project charter, and project management plan
D. Activity list, project statement of work, project charter, and communications management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #57
Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Project scope statement and accepted deliverables
B. Scope baseline and project documents update
C. Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors
D. Scope baseline and work performance information
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #58
In Project Resource Management, which process uses recognition and rewards as a tool and technique?
A. Control Resources
B. Develop Team
C. Manage Team
D. Monitor Team
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #59
The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?
A. Monitor Communications
B. Plan Communications Management
C. Manage Communications
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #60
What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. The project must be of high quality
B. The stakeholders are from different countries
C. The project must comply with strict local government regulations
D. The project has a tight budget and timeline
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #61
A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the importance of creating the project management office?
A. It will give the project manager independence to make decisions without other departmental input
B. It integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled
C. The project management office can execute administrative tasks
D. The project management office can coordinate projects
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #62
In which project cost management process is work performance data an output?
A. Plan Cost Management
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #63
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:
A. compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them
B. assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register
C. evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project
D. analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project’s time and cost objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #64
Why is tailoring required in a project?
A. Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time
B. Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required
C. Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project
D. Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #65
What should a project manager do to prepare a risk management plan in a project with a lot of technical uncertainty?
A. Get expert judgment
B. Count on personal experience
C. Ask project sponsors
D. Delay the project until technical uncertainty is clarified
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #66
The project manager is creating the communications management plan. Which group of inputs is required to begin?
A. Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register
B. Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan
C. Project charter, project management plan, and project documents
D. Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #67
A project manager is working on an estimate. The project team is estimating each work package and then finding the total of all the work packages. Which technique is using the project manager?
A. Three-point estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Data analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #68
What are the project management processes associated with project quality management?
A. Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Control Quality
B. Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Cost of Quality
C. Manage Quality, Customer Satisfaction, and Control Quality
D. Customer Satisfaction, Control Quality, and Continuous Improvement
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #69
Which of the following are inputs for the Plan Quality Management processes?
A. Quality metrics, project documents, and financial performance
B. Quality management plan, project documents, and quality metrics
C. Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets
D. Project management plan, quality metrics, and project documents
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #70
A project manager is working on the communications management plan. Which of these documents are inputs to consider?
A. Stakeholder engagement plan and organizational process assets
B. Project schedule and stakeholder register
C. Quality management plan and risk register
D. Basis of estimates and scope baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #71
When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Define Scope
D. Collect Requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #72
Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?
A. Training and establishing ground rules
B. Networking activities and estimating team resources
C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance
D. Recruit new team members and training
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #73
Which is the correct hierarchy in a project environment, from most to least inclusive?
A. Projects, portfolios, then programs
B. Portfolios, programs, then projects
C. Portfolios, projects, then programs
D. Projects, programs, then portfolios
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #74
Company A’s accountant sends notification about a change in the company’s tax classification. Why would a project have to be initiated?
A. To change business and technological strategies
B. To improve processes and services
C. To meet regulatory and legal requirements
D. To satisfy stakeholder requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #75
During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Schedule
C. Determine Budget
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #76
With regard to a project manager’s sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?
A. Suppliers
B. Customers
C. Governing bodies
D. Project team
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #77
Which is a major component of an agreement?
A. Change request handling
B. Risk register templates
C. Lessons learned register
D. Procurement management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #78
The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:
A. project scope
B. product scope
C. service scope
D. product breakdown structure
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #79
Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Updated project charter
C. Approved change request
D. Multicriteria decision analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #80
A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager’s key responsibility during this phase?
A. Defining the scope of the project
B. Building a collaborative environment
C. Creating a detailed project management plan
D. Directing the delivery of the project
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #81
Which of the following conditions should the project manager consider when working on the scheduling for an adaptive environment?
A. Defining, sequencing, estimating activity durations, and developing a schedule model are so tightly linked that they are viewed as a single process
B. The detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to accommodate newly gained knowledge
C. An iterative scheduling and on-demand, pull-based scheduling will be required
D. To address the full delivery schedule, a range of techniques may be needed and then need to be adapted
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #82
If you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?
A. Accepting
B. Transferring
C. Avoiding
D. Mitigating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #83
What is the purpose of the project management process groups?
A. To define a new project
B. To track and monitor processes easily
C. To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives
D. To link specific process inputs and outputs
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #84
In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with changes?
A. Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions
B. Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints
C. Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders
D. Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #85
Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?
A. Define, Validate, and Control Scope; Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B. Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement
C. Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define, Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS
D. Define, Validate, and Control Scope; Control Costs; Manage Stakeholder Engagement; and keep budget under control
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #86
What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?
A. Expert judgment
B. Interpersonal skills
C. Team agreements
D. Communication skills
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #87
Which of the following can a project manager use to represent defined team member roles in a group of tasks?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #88
Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?
A. Hybrid methodologies
B. Risk register updates
C. Outsourced project resources
D. Reliance on lessons learned documents
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #89
- (Topic 1) The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan
B. Activity resource requirements
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysi
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #90
- (Topic 1) The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan
B. Project charter
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Stakeholder registe
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #91
- (Topic 1) Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #92
- (Topic 1) Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #93
- (Topic 1) Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #94
- (Topic 1) A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #95
- (Topic 1) Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #96
- (Topic 1) An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk registe
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #97
- (Topic 1) Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #98
- (Topic 1) Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #99
- (Topic 1) Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #100
- (Topic 1) Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #101
- (Topic 1) Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #102
- (Topic 1) Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #103
- (Topic 1) Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #104
- (Topic 1) The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #105
- (Topic 1) Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #106
- (Topic 1) When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #107
- (Topic 1) An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan
B. The stakeholder register
C. Procurement documents
D. Stakeholder analysi
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #108
- (Topic 1) A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #109
- (Topic 1) Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements
B. Products, programs, and services
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services
D. Improvements, processes, and product
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #110
- (Topic 1) Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #111
- (Topic 1) Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #112
- (Topic 1) An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case
B. Activity list
C. Project management plan
D. Cost forecas
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #113
- (Topic 1) The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project
D. Complete the work defined in the project management pla
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #114
- (Topic 1) Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #115
- (Topic 1) Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #116
- (Topic 1) Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #117
- (Topic 1) The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
A. 10
B. 12
C. 20
D. 24
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #118
- (Topic 1) The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Manage Project Team
D. Develop Project Tea
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #119
- (Topic 1) When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #120
- (Topic 1) Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #121
- (Topic 1) Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #122
- (Topic 2) An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Develop Project Team
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #123
- (Topic 2) Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #124
- (Topic 2) Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?
A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #125
- (Topic 2) The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #126
- (Topic 2) Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #127
- (Topic 2) Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables
B. Validated deliverables
C. Acceptance criteria
D. Activity resource requirement
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #128
- (Topic 2) Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #129
- (Topic 2) Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #130
- (Topic 2) Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?
A. Internal
B. External
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #131
- (Topic 2) An input to the Control Quality process is:
A. Activity attributes
B. Quality control measurements
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #132
- (Topic 2) Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:
A. influencing
B. leadership
C. motivation
D. coaching
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #133
- (Topic 2) Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Reserve analysis and expert judgment
B. Facilitation techniques and meetings
C. Expert judgment and analytical techniques
D. Performance reviews and meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #134
- (Topic 2) Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests
B. work performance information and change requests
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log
D. project management plan updates and an issue lo
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #135
- (Topic 2) During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #136
- (Topic 2) Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #137
- (Topic 2) An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. Deliverables
B. Validated changes
C. The change log
D. The requirements traceability matri
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #138
- (Topic 2) Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:
A. prototypes
B. requirements
C. analyses
D. benchmarks
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #139
- (Topic 2) The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #140
- (Topic 2) Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
A. project documents updates
B. project management plan updates
C. change requests
D. work performance informatio
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #141
- (Topic 2) The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Plan Human Resource Management
C. Manage Project Team
D. Develop Project Tea
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #142
- (Topic 2) Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #143
- (Topic 2) Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #144
- (Topic 2) In project management, a temporary project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #145
- (Topic 2) Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
A. Collaboration
B. Negotiation
C. Decision making
D. Influencing
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #146
- (Topic 2) Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #147
- (Topic 2) At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the en
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #148
- (Topic 2) Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #149
- (Topic 2) The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:
A. adaptive
B. reflexive
C. predictive
D. iterative
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #150
- (Topic 2) Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
A. performance measurement criteria
B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #151
- (Topic 3) The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:
A. Supportive
B. Leading
C. Neutral
D. Resistant
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #152
- (Topic 3) Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #153
- (Topic 3) Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #154
- (Topic 3) The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #155
- (Topic 3) Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #156
- (Topic 3) Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?
A. Bottom-up
B. Three-point
C. Parametric
D. Analogous
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #157
- (Topic 3) Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?
A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #158
- (Topic 3) Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?
A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #159
- (Topic 3) Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #160
- (Topic 3) What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #161
- (Topic 3) Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #162
- (Topic 3) The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #163
- (Topic 3) Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
A. Project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Project document updates
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #164
- (Topic 3) Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #165
- (Topic 3) An output of Control Schedule is:
A. A project schedule network diagram
B. A schedule management plan
C. Schedule data
D. Schedule forecasts
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #166
- (Topic 3) Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #167
- (Topic 3) Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #168
- (Topic 3) When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #169
- (Topic 3) When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures
B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #170
- (Topic 3) What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #171
- (Topic 3) Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #172
- (Topic 3) The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide? should:
A. always be applied uniformly
B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team
D. be applied based on ISO guideline
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #173
- (Topic 3) Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #174
- (Topic 3) What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
A. Sole-sum
B. Win-lose
C. Lose-win
D. Partial-sum
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #175
- (Topic 3) Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #176
- (Topic 3) Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
A. Staffing level is highest at the start
B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start
D. The cost of changes is highest at the star
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #177
- (Topic 3) A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordination of communication management across projects
C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise leve
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #178
- (Topic 3) What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #179
- (Topic 3) Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #180
- (Topic 3) Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #181
- (Topic 3) The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #182
- (Topic 3) When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #183
- (Topic 3) An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline
B. Project scope statement
C. Organizational process assets
D. Requirements traceability matri
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #184
- (Topic 3) An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. change requests
B. team performance assessments
C. project staff assignments
D. project documents updates
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #185
- (Topic 4) Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:
A. updates
B. defect repairs
C. preventive actions
D. corrective action
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #186
- (Topic 4) In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #187
- (Topic 4) The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
A. Control Schedule
B. Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Develop Schedul
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #188
- (Topic 4) Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #189
- (Topic 4) Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?
A. Vendor bid analysis
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Reserve analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #190
- (Topic 4) The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
A. Transfer
B. Share
C. Avoid
D. Accept
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #191
- (Topic 4) Which is an output from Distribute Information?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #192
- (Topic 4) Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution
B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)
C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request
D. Market demand and/or legal requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #193
- (Topic 4) In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #194
- (Topic 4) Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?
A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #195
- (Topic 4) One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:
A. organization charts
B. ground rules
C. organizational theory,
D. conflict managemen
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #196
- (Topic 4) Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action
B. Risk management
C. Corrective action
D. Defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #197
- (Topic 4) A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:
A. risk data quality assessment
B. variance and trend analysis
C. data gathering and representation techniques
D. risk audit
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #198
- (Topic 4) The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:
A. Executing
B. Initiating,
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Plannin
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #199
- (Topic 4) What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #200
- (Topic 4) An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:
A. quality management plan
B. project management plan
C. communications management plan
D. schedule management pla
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #201
- (Topic 4) Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
A. Cost-reimbursable contracts
B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
C. Fixed-price contracts
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #202
- (Topic 4) The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:
A. Determine Budget
B. Baseline Budget
C. Control Costs
D. Estimate Cost
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #203
- (Topic 4) The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #204
- (Topic 4) When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
A. Fixed Fee
B. Free Float
C. Fixed Finish
D. Finish-to-Finish
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #205
- (Topic 4) In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
A. part-time
B. full-time
C. occasional
D. unlimited
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #206
- (Topic 4) Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Three-point
D. What-if scenario analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #207
- (Topic 4) What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #208
- (Topic 4) Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #209
- (Topic 4) Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #210
- (Topic 4) In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
A. Start-to-start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Rnish-to-finish (FF)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #211
- (Topic 4) What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #212
- (Topic 4) A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?
A. US$S000
B. US$9500
C. US$10,000
D. US$12,500
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #213
- (Topic 4) Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #214
- (Topic 4) Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Parametric estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #215
- (Topic 4) Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #216
- (Topic 4) Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?
A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4
B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4
C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6
D. Ce = (C0 + C?, + 4Cp) / 6
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #217
- (Topic 4) Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?
A. Monitor and Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #218
- (Topic 4) When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:
A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects
B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects
D. integrated for specific phases or subproject
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #219
- (Topic 4) Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?
A. Cost risk simulation analysis
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Sensitivity analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #220
- (Topic 4) What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%
B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #221
- (Topic 4) Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?
A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
B. Report Performance
C. Distribute Information
D. Plan Communications
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #222
- (Topic 4) Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
A. Activity sequencing
B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
D. Crashing
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #223
- (Topic 5) Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:
A. manager
B. success
C. deadline
D. scope
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #224
- (Topic 5) Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #225
- (Topic 5) Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #226
- (Topic 5) A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirement
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #227
- (Topic 5) Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #228
- (Topic 5) What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #229
- (Topic 5) In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
A. Schedule
B. Quality
C. Communications
D. Cost
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #230
- (Topic 5) The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?
A. 0
B. 0
C. 1
D. 1
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #231
- (Topic 5) The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log
B. quality checklist
C. risk register
D. contract typ
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #232
- (Topic 5) An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
A. Activity resource requirements
B. Published estimating data
C. Resource calendars
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #233
- (Topic 5) Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?
A. Brainstorming
B. Focus groups
C. Affinity diagram
D. Plurality
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #234
- (Topic 5) Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Five
D. Twelve
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #235
- (Topic 5) In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #236
- (Topic 5) The three processes of Project Cost Management are:
A. Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs
B. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources
C. Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Cost
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #237
- (Topic 5) Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #238
- (Topic 5) Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #239
- (Topic 5) While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?
A. Communications management plan
B. Human resource plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Procurement management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #240
- (Topic 5) An input of the Create WBS process is:
A. requirements documentation
B. scope baseline
C. project charter
D. validated deliverable
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #241
- (Topic 5) How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
A. Keep satisfied
B. Keep informed
C. Manage closely
D. Monitor
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #242
- (Topic 5) Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?
A. Estimate at completion
B. Cost performance
C. Schedule performance
D. To-complete performance
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #243
- (Topic 5) Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
A. Affinity
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Matrix
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #244
- (Topic 5) The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
A. Define Activities
B. Create WBS
C. Define Scope
D. Develop Schedul
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #245
- (Topic 5) The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets
B. resource calendar
C. human resource plan
D. Develop Project Team proces
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #246
- (Exam Topic 3) Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #247
- (Exam Topic 3) Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #248
- (Exam Topic 3) Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. A work breakdown structure
C. The project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #249
- (Exam Topic 3) Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved change requests
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #250
- (Exam Topic 3) Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #251
- (Exam Topic 3) Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?
A. Market conditions and published commercial information
B. Company structure and market conditions
C. Commercial information and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market conditions
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #252
- (Exam Topic 3) An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. change requests
B. team performance assessments
C. project staff assignments
D. project documents updates
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #253
- (Exam Topic 3) When is a Salience Model used?
A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #254
- (Exam Topic 3) Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #255
- (Exam Topic 3) An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Make-or-buy decisions
B. Activity cost estimates
C. Seller proposals
D. Procurement documents
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #256
- (Exam Topic 3) Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #257
- (Exam Topic 3) If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
A. One
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #258
- (Exam Topic 3) Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #259
- (Exam Topic 3) Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #260
- (Exam Topic 3) Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?
A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #261
- (Exam Topic 3) While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect
C. Leave the defect in and work around it
D. Fast-track the remaining development
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #262
- (Exam Topic 3) What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #263
- (Exam Topic 3) Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?
A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #264
- (Exam Topic 3) The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide? should:
A. always be applied uniformly
B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #265
- (Exam Topic 3) Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #266
- (Exam Topic 3) Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update
C. Project schedule network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #267
- (Exam Topic 3) Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #268
- (Exam Topic 3) Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #269
- (Exam Topic 3) Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Project management information system (PMIS)
D. Project selection methods
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #270
- (Exam Topic 3) The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #271
- (Exam Topic 3) Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #272
- (Exam Topic 3) When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #273
- (Exam Topic 3) Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #274
- (Exam Topic 3) What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #275
- (Exam Topic 3) Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests
B. work performance information and change requests
C. project management plan updates and work performance information
D. issue logs and organizational process assets updates
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #276
- (Exam Topic 3) What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events
D. Removal of project risk
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #277
- (Exam Topic 3) Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #278
- (Exam Topic 3) To which process is work performance information an input?
A. Administer Procurements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Create WBS
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #279
- (Exam Topic 3) The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?
A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #280
- (Exam Topic 3) The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #281
- (Exam Topic 3) Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #282
- (Exam Topic 3) The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #283
- (Exam Topic 3) Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #284
- (Exam Topic 3) Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #285
- (Exam Topic 3) The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
A. Intuitive
B. Iterative
C. Measured
D. Monitored
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #286
- (Exam Topic 3) Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Team performance assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #287
- (Exam Topic 3) Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #288
- (Exam Topic 3) Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #289
- (Exam Topic 3) The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #290
- (Exam Topic 3) What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #291
- (Exam Topic 3) What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #292
- (Exam Topic 2) The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #293
- (Exam Topic 2) Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #294
- (Exam Topic 2) A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
A. Require communication technology that is not readily available
B. Create difficulties when including people with disabilities
C. Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts
D. Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #295
- (Exam Topic 2) The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
A. Analysis
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Response
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #296
- (Exam Topic 2) A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #297
- (Exam Topic 2) Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?
A. Influence/impact grid
B. Power/influence grid
C. Power/interest grid
D. Salience model
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #298
- (Exam Topic 2) Which term describes an assessment of correctness?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Grade
D. Quality
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #299
- (Exam Topic 2) Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?
A. Communication methods
B. Information technology
C. Communication models
D. Information management systems
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #300
- (Exam Topic 2) When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?
A. Reserve analysis
B. Regression analysis
C. Document analysis
D. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #301
- (Exam Topic 2) A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
A. Resource calendar
B. Project organization chart
C. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #302
- (Exam Topic 2) Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #303
- (Exam Topic 2) Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #304
- (Exam Topic 2) Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #305
- (Exam Topic 2) While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:
A. ends
B. begins
C. delays
D. deviates
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #306
- (Exam Topic 2) Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?
A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #307
- (Exam Topic 2) A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:
A. Quality assurance
B. A stakeholder management plan
C. Project team building
D. Integrated change control
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #308
- (Exam Topic 2) Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #309
- (Exam Topic 2) The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:
A. exploit
B. avoid
C. mitigate
D. share
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #310
- (Exam Topic 2) Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements
B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements
C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: D

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