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Comprehensive PMP Exam Test Questions & Answers, Project Management Professional Certification | SPOTO

Prepare comprehensively for the PMP certification with SPOTO's extensive collection of exam test questions and answers. The Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification is globally acknowledged, assessing a candidate's capacity to lead and manage projects effectively. PMI, the premier authority in project management, established the PMP to validate project managers' expertise and experience across various project methodologies. Prepare confidently with SPOTO's exam practice, exam simulator, and online exam questions, ensuring a successful PMP certification journey. Access SPOTO's mock exams for a comprehensive exam preparation experience. SPOTO's exam questions and answers cover key exam topics, providing a thorough review of project management principles. Our practice tests, exam dumps, and sample questions are meticulously designed to align with the PMP exam objectives. With SPOTO's free quizzes and exam materials, candidates can enhance their exam preparation and test their knowledge.
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Question #1
Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: C

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Question #2
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #3
Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?
A. Configuration management plan
B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan
D. Schedule baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #4
The Human Resource Management processes are:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #5
Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Plan Cost Management
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #6
Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?
A. Corrective action
B. Defect repair
C. Preventative action
D. Probable action
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #7
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #8
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #9
A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:
A. To the project management plan
B. To the risk register
C. In the scope verification processes
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #10
What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Has no bearing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #11
Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?
A. Change requests
B. Variance analysis
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #12
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #13
The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)
D. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #14
Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work days. What should be your concern?
A. There is a cost under run
B. There is a cost overrun
C. May not meet deadline
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #15
As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #16
Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:
A. Level of control
B. Communication channels
C. Scope
D. Strategic alignment
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #17
The run chart created during the Perform Quality Control process on a project is used to show the:
A. relationship between two variables
B. data points plotted in the order in which they occur
C. most common cause of problems in a process
D. frequency of occurrence
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #18
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #19
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests
B. work performance information and change requests
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log
D. project management plan updates and an issue log
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #20
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #21
Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?
A. Project managers
B. Stakeholders
C. Functional managers
D. Sponsors
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #22
What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Work breakdown structure update
C. Project network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #23
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #24
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #25
When a control chart is used to monitor performance of a process, which of the following will be set by the project manager and the appropriate stakeholders to reflect the point(s) at which corrective action will be taken to prevent exceeding the specification limits?
A. Upper and lower control limits
B. Upper and lower specification limits
C. Process mean
D. Data points
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #26
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Develop Schedule
D. Plan Scope Management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #27
During project selection, which factor is most important?
A. Types of constraints
B. Internal business needs
C. Budget
D. Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #28
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #29
Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:
A. project staff assignments
B. project tea m acquisition
C. managing conflicting interests
D. communication methods
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #30
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment
D. The product is needed in 250 days
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #31
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #32
Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #33
Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?
A. Plan Cost Management
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Plan Stakeholder Management
D. Plan Schedule Management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #34
Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for opportunities
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Risk data quality assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #35
Which of the following will provide the basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, and monitoring and controlling project work?
A. Activities
B. Milestone list
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Work packages
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #36
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #37
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #38
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
A. Root cause analysis
B. Risk probability and impact assessment
C. Expert judgment
D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #39
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #40
When is a Salience Model used?
A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #41
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #42
The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log
B. quality checklist
C. risk register
D. contract type
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #43
Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
A. Control Costs
B. Plan Quality
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #44
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #45
The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #46
The following is a network diagram for a project. How many possible paths are identified for this project?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #47
The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an:
A. work package
B. deliverable
C. milestone
D. activity
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #48
An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #49
The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #50
Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?
A. Scope baseline
B. Scope management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Cost baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #51
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #52
What is the minimum a project schedule must include?
A. Variance analysis
B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
C. A critical path diagram
D. Critical chain analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #53
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Performance reports
B. Project charter
C. Outputs from planning processes
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #54
The organizational process assets that are of particular importance to Plan Communications are:
A. Formal plans and procedures
B. Lessons learned and historical information
C. Guidelines and knowledge bases
D. Stakeholder positions and their influence
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #55
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?
A. Critical path
B. Rolling Wave
C. PDM
D. Para metric
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #56
What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
A. Scope changes
B. Resource limitations
C. Risk analysis
D. Quality audits
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #57
One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:
A. highlight the need for root cause analysis
B. share the process documentation among stakeholders
C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities
D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #58
The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Total Quality Management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #59
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #60
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Manage Project Team
D. Develop Project Team
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #61
The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:
A. majority rule technique
B. nominal group technique
C. Delphi technique,
D. idea/mind mapping technique
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #62
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
A. Analysis
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Response
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #63
Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?
A. Teaming agreements
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #64
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion
B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget
C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay
D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #65
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables
B. Validated deliverables
C. Acceptance criteria
D. Activity resource requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #66
Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?
A. Schedule Analysis
B. Checklist Analysis
C. Assumption Analysis
D. Cost-Benefit Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #67
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #68
Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure?
A. Resource leveling
B. Parametric measuring
C. Pareto chart
D. Earned value
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #69
The project charter is an input to which process?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #70
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
A. Control Schedule
B. Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #71
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops
B. observations
C. questionnaires and surveys
D. group creativity techniques
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #72
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #73
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?
A. Approved change requests
B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #74
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #75
Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #76
The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:
A. Methodology
B. Risk category
C. Risk attitude
D. Assumption analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #77
A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
A. contingent risk
B. residual risk
C. potential risk
D. secondary risk
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #78
What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #79
A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
A. cultural differences of team members
B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #80
The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
A. Manage the timely completion of the project
B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required
C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun
D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #81
Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?
A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Performance measurements
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #82
Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Project statement of work
B. Selected sellers
C. Risk register updates
D. Teaming agreements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #83
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #84
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #85
Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?
A. Cause-and-effect diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Scatter diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #86
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #87
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #88
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #89
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:
A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects
B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #90
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #91
Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Metrics
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Plan Quality
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #92
Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:
A. risk taking and risk avoidance
B. known risk and unknown risk
C. identified risk and analyzed risk
D. varying degrees of risk
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #93
The definition of operations is a/an:
A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service
B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area
D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #94
The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:
A. establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team
B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented
C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline
D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #95
Schedule milestones and a predefined budget are examples of:
A. Project constraints
B. Requirements documentation
C. Organizational process assets
D. Activity cost estimates
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #96
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Decomposition
B. Modeling techniques
C. Resource optimization
D. Meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #97
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Estimate Activity Resources
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #98
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #99
Within project integration management, the statement of work (SOW) references which aspects of the project?
A. Strategic plan, business need, and product scope description
B. Contract, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets
C. Business plan, project management plan, and project schedule
D. Product lifecycle, business objective, and management strategy
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #100
Inputs to the Define Activities process include:
A. Project scope statement, resource calendars, and work performance information
B. Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets
C. Project scope statement, approved change requests, and WBS dictionary
D. Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #101
When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
A. improvement
B. program
C. result
D. portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #102
Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update
C. Project schedule network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #103
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #104
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting
C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #105
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #106
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #107
Which process group contains the processes performed to finalize all activities?
A. Planning Process Group
B. Executing Process Group
C. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group
D. Closing Process Group
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #108
In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Monitor and control project work
D. Risk response planning
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #109
Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #110
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #111
Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
A. Build v
B. buy
C. Expert judgment
D. Alternatives identification
E. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #112
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #113
- (Topic 5) The completion of the project scope is measured against the:
A. requirements documentation
B. project scope statement
C. project management plan
D. work performance measurements
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #114
At which stage of the project should certain factors such as the unavailability of human resources due to constraint be considered?
A. Initiation
B. Execution
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #115
Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Checksheet
D. Pareto diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #116
Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Activities
D. Activity Attributes
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #117
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #118
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect
C. Leave the defect in and work around it
D. Fast-track the remaining development
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #119
Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #120
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #121
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?
A. Three-point estimates
B. Resource leveling
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Bottom-up estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #122
Which type of graphic is displayed below?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Context diagram
C. Control chart
D. Pareto diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #123
How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
A. Keep satisfied
B. Keep informed
C. Manage closely
D. Monitor
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #124
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #125
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #126
When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:
A. realigned
B. performed
C. improved
D. controlled
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #127
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #128
High-level project risks are included in which document?
A. Business case
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Project charter
D. Risk register
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #129
For a project to be successful, the project team must do which of the following?
A. Complete the project in sequential phases
B. Overlook minor stakeholders
C. Produce ongoing repetitive products, services, or results
D. Select the appropriate processes required to meet the project objective
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #130
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk category
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #131
A primary function of a project management office is to support project managers in a variety of ways, including which of the following?
A. Developing and managing project policies, procedures, templates, and other shared documentation
B. Acting as the project sponsor by providing financial resources to the project
C. Resolving issues and change management within a shared governance structure
D. Aligning organizational/strategic direction that affects project and program goals
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #132
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
View answer
Correct Answer: A

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