Latest Practice Tests and Study Materials 2024, Certified Associate in Project Management

Question #1

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases

B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully

C. a recognized standard for the project management profession

D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #2

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #3

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A. Plan Quality

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Perform Quality Control

D. Total Quality Management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #4

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #5

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A. Slack

B. Float

C. Lag

D. Lead

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #6

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A. requirements documentation

B. project scope statement

C. project management plan

D. work performance measurements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #7

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Monitoring and Controlling

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #8

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A. Project management plan

B. Activity resource requirements

C. Resource calendar

D. Project staff assignments

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #9

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A. Work performance reports

B. Assumptions logs

C. Network diagrams

D. Academic studies

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #10

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

A. Scope baseline

B. Scope management plan

C. Change management plan

D. Cost baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #11

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A. Variance Analysis

B. Define Scope

C. Verify Scope

D. Control Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #12

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A. work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. schedule target

C. performance measurement baseline (PMB)

D. earned value baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #13

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A. event

B. response,

C. perception

D. impact

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #14

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A. prevention over inspection

B. statistical sampling

C. management responsibility,

D. continuous improvement

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #15

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A. Variance analysis

B. Three-point estimating

C. Bottom-up estimating

D. Historical relationships

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #16

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A. assumption log

B. quality checklist

C. risk register

D. contract type

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #17

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A. operate separately

B. move together in batches,

C. overlap and interact

D. move in a sequence

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #18

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A. scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy

B. working relationships among various stakeholders and team members

C. application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D. work to be completed next

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #19

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A. facilitated workshops

B. observations

C. questionnaires and surveys

D. group creativity techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #20

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #21

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A. manager

B. success

C. deadline

D. scope

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #22

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A. Networking

B. Training

C. Negotiation

D. Issue log

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #23

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

A. Corrective action

B. Defect repair

C. Preventative action

D. Probable action

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #24

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #25

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A. requirements documentation

B. scope baseline

C. project charter

D. validated deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #26

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A. Schedule

B. Quality

C. Communications

D. Cost

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #27

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #28

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Control Costs

B. Determine Budget

C. Estimate Costs

D. Control Budget

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #29

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

A. Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B. Precedence diagramming

C. Project schedule network diagramming

D. Mathematical analysis diagramming

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #30

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A. cost management plan

B. risk management plan,

C. activity list,

D. risk register

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #31

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Project scope statement

B. Project charter

C. Project plan

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #32

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

A. minus planned value [EV - PV]

B. minus actual cost [EV - AC]

C. divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D. divided by actual cost [EV/AC]

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #33

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Estimate Activity Durations,

C. Develop Schedule

D. Control Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #34

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A. Share

B. Accept

C. Mitigate

D. Transfer

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #35

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A. Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs

B. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources

C. Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources

D. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #36

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A. Project statement of work

B. Selected sellers

C. Risk register updates

D. Teaming agreements

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #37

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A. a control chart

B. baseline

C. Create WBS

D. decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #38

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B. Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C. Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D. Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #39

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

A. Project

B. Scope

C. Contract

D. Program

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #40

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

A. Avoid

B. Accept

C. Mitigate

D. Exploit

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #41

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A. Estimate at completion

B. Cost performance

C. Schedule performance

D. To-complete performance

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #42

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A. highlight the need for root cause analysis

B. share the process documentation among stakeholders

C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities

D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #43

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A. Communications management plan

B. Human resource plan

C. Quality management plan

D. Procurement management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #44

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A. Acquisition

B. Negotiation

C. Virtual team

D. Pre-assignment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #45

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A. Brainstorming

B. Focus groups

C. Affinity diagram

D. Plurality

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #46

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment

B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default

C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis

D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #47

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A. Configuration management plan

B. Scope baseline

C. Requirements management plan

D. Schedule baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #48

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A. External

B. Lead

C. Discretionary

D. Mandatory

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #49

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A. quality

B. value

C. technical performance

D. status

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #50

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A. under budget and behind schedule

B. over budget and ahead of schedule

C. on schedule

D. complete; all planned values have been earned

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #51

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A. Reserve analysis

B. Three-point estimating

C. Parametric estimating

D. Analogous estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #52

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A. majority rule technique

B. nominal group technique

C. Delphi technique,

D. idea/mind mapping technique

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #53

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #54

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A. Product analysis

B. Project charter

C. Scope baseline

D. Project scope statement

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #55

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B. Monitor and Control Risks

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Report Performance

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #56

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A. Technical performance measurement

B. Cost performance baseline

C. Benchmarking

D. Cost of quality

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #57

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A. Sensitivity analysis

B. Three-point estimate

C. Modeling and simulation

D. Expected monetary value analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #58

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A. Accepted deliverables

B. Organizational process assets updates

C. Managing stakeholder expectations

D. Performance reports

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #59

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit

B. Develop a risk register for risk planning

C. Evaluate each risk's importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #60

Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?

A. Benefit cost analysis

B. Net present value

C. Value analysis

D. Needs assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #61

Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status. How would you define this situation?

A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project

B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved

C. This is a recurring process

D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project management

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #62

A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with aggressive timelines. The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:

A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and stakeholders

B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their input

C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and stakeholders

D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #63

All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:

A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created

B. He or she may initiate changes to the project

C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change

D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #64

A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team. To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:

A. The sponsor

B. Other project managers

C. The project management office

D. The team

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #65

While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events. You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project off track. What should you do?

A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify management to expect unknown risks to occur

B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and impact that may result from the occurrence

C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as reserves

D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management reserve budget

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #66

You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?

A. The company code of conduct

B. The project charter

C. The scope management plan

D. The negotiation plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #67

An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?

A. Ask for full details

B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal

C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity

D. Tell the employee to inform his boss

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #68

What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?

A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price

B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate

C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated

D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #69

You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your chance of success.

A. Your intuition and training

B. Stakeholder analysis

C. Historical information

D. Configuration management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #70

If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:

A. WBS

B. Communications management plan

C. Project management information system

D. Project scope management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #71

The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?

A. Lack of competent programmers

B. Cultural influences

C. Internationalization

D. Communication

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #72

A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?

A. Assign resources

B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents

C. Evaluate impact

D. Request change control board involvement

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #73

A work authorization system can be used to:

A. Manage who does each activity

B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done

C. Manage when each activity is done

D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #74

A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:

A. It only had six weeks of changes

B. It was completed within the baseline

C. There were so few changes

D. There was good communication control

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #75

Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?

A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval

B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding

C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the project

D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #76

The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized contracting environment.

A. Standardized company project management practices

B. Loyalty to the project

C. Experience

D. Access to others with similar expertise

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #77

Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?

A. Constrained optimization

B. Comparative approach

C. Benefit measurement

D. Impact analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #78

A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:

A. Create a project scope statement

B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope

C. Analyze project risk

D. Begin work on a project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #79

A person is writing a document identifying the business need for a project and is including a description of the product created by the project. She includes a list of stakeholders and pre assigned resources. What is the role of this person on the project?

A. The project manager for the project or a company functional manager

B. A member of the project management team working at the direction of the project manager

C. The sponsor or the project manager

D. A manager or executive in the organization who is higher in the corporate hierarchy than the project manager

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #80

Generally, when is the BEST time to create a procurement management plan?

A. After the contract is signed

B. Preceding the Conduct Procurement process

C. During project initiating

D. When updating the procurement management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #81

All the following are needed to create the WBS EXCEPT:

A. Organizational process assets

B. Quality measurements

C. Requirements documentation

D. Project scope statement

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #82

Which of the following is a KEY output of the Verify Scope process?

A. A more complete scope management plan

B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables

C. Improved schedule estimates

D. An improved project management information system

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #83

You are the project manager on an information technology project on which you and the sponsor have already approved the scope. An information specialist on your team, after having lunch with a low ranking customer representative working with him on a software project, learns that a simple alteration in the display would be a great addition to the project. The information specialist installs the change with no negative effect on the project schedule and at no additional cost. What action should be taken?

A. The information specialist should be recognized for exceeding customer expectations without affecting project cost or schedule

B. The project manager should add an activity to the project management plan with no associated time

C. The information specialist should be told that his behavior was unacceptable, as it may have negatively affected the overall project

D. The project manager should create a change control form and have the customer approve the change since the change has already been made

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #84

Which of the following is NOT included in a schedule change control system?

A. Approval levels necessary for authorizing changes

B. Tracking systems

C. Paperwork necessary for making changes

D. Limitations on the scope of changes

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #85

Which of the following is generally the MOST CORRECT use of a project network diagram?

A. Showing the project schedule

B. Documenting activity interdependencies

C. Defining project resources

D. Defining the project costs

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #86

In an activity-on-node diagram, the nodes represent:

A. Work packages

B. Activities

C. Dependencies

D. Discretionaries

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #87

An activity-on-node (AON) network diagram shows the following activities on two critical paths; Start, D, E, J, L, End and Start, D, E, G, I, L, End. Each activity is at least three days in duration, except for activity L, which is one day in duration. If you are directed to reduce the project by one day, which activities are MOST likely to change?

A. Activity L

B. Activity E or activity J

C. Activity G or activity I

D. Activity D or activity E

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #88

A project manager has increased project costs by US $100,000, but completed the project four weeks earlier than planned. What activity is BEST described here?

A. Resource leveling

B. Schedule compression

C. Critical chain

D. Adjusting leads and lags

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #89

The project manager has performed schedule network analysis, compressed the schedule, and completed a Monte Carlo analysis. What time management activity should be done NEXT?

A. Update resource requirements

B. Recommend corrective actions

C. Estimate Activity Durations

D. Create a milestone list

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #90

If project time and cost are not as important as the number of resources used each month, which of the following is the BEST thing to do?

A. Perform a Monte Carlo analysis

B. Fast track the project

C. Perform resource leveling

D. Analyze the life cycle costs

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #91

A team member from research and development tells you that her work is too creative to provide you with a fixed single estimate for the activity. You both decide to use the average labor hours per installation from past projects to predict the future. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Parametric estimating

B. Three-point estimating

C. Analogous estimating

D. Monte Carlo analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #92

In attempting to complete the project faster, the project manager looks at the cost associated with crashing each activity. The BEST approach to crashing would also include looking at the:

A. Risk impact of crashing each activity

B. Customer's opinion of which activities to crash

C. Boss's opinion of which activities to crash and in which order

D. Project life cycle phase in which the activity is due to occur

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #93

Based on the chart, while completing the project, a team member tells you that the team forgot something during planning. Activity F needs the results of activity E before it can begin. Taking this new dependency into account, what would be the effect on the project?

A. It would increase the critical path

B. Communication would be more complex

C. There would be no effect

D. It would delay activity

F.

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #94

Using the chart, what is the lowest cost of crashing this project to save four weeks?

A. $18,000

B. $6,000

C. $7,000

D. $9,000

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #95

Based on the network diagram in the chart, the resource working on activity G is replaced with another resource with 50 percent of the productivity of the previous resource. How long will this project take?

A. 44

B. 51

C. 52

D. 36

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #96

A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for US $130,000 over a six-week period. According to her schedule, the project should have cost US $60,000 to date. However, it has cost US $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule, because the original estimates were not accurate. Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to solve this problem?

A. Project manager

B. Senior management

C. Project sponsor

D. Manager of the project management office

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #97

While reviewing project performance, the project manager determines that the schedule variance is -500. What is the BEST thing to do?

A. Let the sponsor know

B. Determine the cost variance

C. Look for activities that can be done in parallel

D. Move resources from the project to one that is not failing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #98

The sponsor has informed you that the resources for your project will be cut. The sponsor wants to know how long the project will take if only nine resources each month are committed to your project. What is this activity called?

A. Crashing

B. Floating

C. Leveling

D. Fast tracking

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #99

A project has experienced significant delays due to equipment problems, staff attrition, and slow client reviews. The project is 40 percent complete and has used 60 percent of the available calendar time. What is the FIRST thing you should do?

A. Rebaseline the schedule to reflect the new date

B. Analyze the critical path activities for potential to fast track or crash the schedule

C. Document the lack of progress and associated issues to management

D. Identify activities that required more time than planned

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #100

Who has the cost risk in a fixed price (FP) contract?

A. The team

B. The buyer

C. The seller

D. Management

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #101

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan

B. Project charter

C. Project management plan

D. Service level agreement

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #102

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases

B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases

D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #103

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A. Document analysis

B. Observations

C. Product analysis

D. Expert judgment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #104

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A. Independent estimates

B. Market research

C. Analytical techniques

D. Bidder conferences

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #105

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A. Communication models

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Organizational communications,

D. Organizational cultures and styles

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #106

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods

C. Earned value management

D. Analytical techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #107

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A. Executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Initiating

D. Planning

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #108

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A. Control Scope

B. Define Scope

C. Plan Scope Management

D. Collect Requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #109

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A. Ground rules

B. Expert judgment

C. Team-building activities

D. Interpersonal skills

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #110

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A. Only once, at the beginning

B. At the beginning and the end

C. Once during each phase

D. Repeatedly

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #111

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A. A risk urgency assessment

B. The scope baseline

C. Work performance information

D. Procurement audits

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #112

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A. Requirements documentation

B. Requirements traceability matrix

C. Project management plan updates

D. Project documents updates

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #113

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

A. Cost management plan

B. Work performance information

C. Quality management plan

D. Work breakdown structure

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #114

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A. External

B. Internal

C. Mandatory

D. Discretionary

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #115

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

A. Decision tree diagram

B. Tornado diagram

C. Pareto diagram

D. Ishikawa diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #116

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project

C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project

D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #117

Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?

A. Matrix diagram

B. Affinity diagram

C. Tree diagram

D. Activity network diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #118

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A. Identify Risks

B. Control Risks

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Plan Risk Responses

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #119

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A. Plan Schedule Management

B. Develop Project Charter

C. Develop Schedule

D. Plan Scope Management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #120

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A. Issue log

B. Change log

C. Expert judgment

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #121

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

A. The project charter

B. The stakeholder analysis

C. A communication management plan

D. A stakeholder register

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #122

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A. Cost estimates

B. Resource calendars,

C. The project charter,

D. The risk register

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #123

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

A. Product analysis

B. Variance analysis

C. Document analysis,

D. Decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #124

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

A. Cost baseline

B. Service level agreement

C. Memorandum of understanding

D. Business case

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #125

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

A. Project charter

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Stakeholder register

D. Organizational process assets

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #126

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A. Feedback analysis

B. Stakeholder analysis

C. Communication management plan

D. Stakeholder management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #127

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

A. Estimate Costs

B. Control Costs

C. Determine Budget

D. Plan Cost Management

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #128

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A. Pareto diagram

B. Performance reporting

C. SWOT analysis

D. Expert judgment

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #129

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

A. Responses

B. Appetite

C. Tolerance

D. Attitude

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #130

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

A. change requests

B. enterprise environmental factors

C. the stakeholder management plan

D. the change log

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #131

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Plan Risk Responses

C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #132

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A. Requirements documentation

B. Requirements traceability matrix

C. Project management plan updates

D. Project documents updates

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #133

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

A. Project

B. Plan

C. Program

D. Portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #134

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Plan Risk Responses

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #135

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A. Benefit

B. Initiative

C. Objective

D. Process

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #136

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A. Liabilities

B. Inspections

C. Training

D. Equipment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #137

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Closing

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #138

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

A. Project management plan

B. Project charter

C. Work breakdown structure

D. Stakeholder register

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #139

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #140

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders

B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders

C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement

D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #141

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

A. Salience

B. Influence/impact

C. Power/interest

D. Power/influence

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #142

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A. Consultants and stakeholders

B. Stakeholders and functional managers

C. Project team members and consultants

D. Project team members and stakeholders

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #143

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

A. Plan Stakeholder Management

B. Identify Stakeholders

C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D. Control Stakeholder Engagement

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #144

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

A. organizational skills

B. technical skills

C. communication skills

D. hard skills

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #145

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A. improvement

B. program

C. result

D. portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #146

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A. management

B. response

C. tolerance

D. appetite

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #147

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process

B. Occur at random times in the project plans

C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event

D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #148

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

A. recognition and rewards

B. compliance

C. staff acquisition

D. training needs

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #149

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A. Completed without planning

B. A routine business process

C. Long in duration

D. Ongoing to produce goods

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #150

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

A. Budget estimates

B. Risk matrix

C. Requirements documentation

D. Procurement documents

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #151

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

A. Uniform

B. Continuous

C. Discrete

D. Linear

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #152

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

A. Customer

B. Sponsor

C. Seller

D. Functional manager

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #153

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A. Collect Requirements

B. Plan Scope Management

C. Define Scope

D. Define Activities

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #154

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

A. Available organizational assets

B. Project staff assignments

C. Interpersonal skills

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #155

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

A. 0

B. 0

C. 0

D. 0

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #156

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

A. exploit

B. avoid

C. mitigate

D. share

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #157

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

A. Control Quality

B. Monitor and Control Project Work

C. Control Scope

D. Perform Integrated Change Control

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #158

Project management processes ensure the:

A. alignment with organizational strategy

B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C. performance of the project team

D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #159

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #160

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A. Marketplace conditions

B. Policies and procedures

C. Project files from previous projects

D. Lessons learned from previous projects

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #161

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

A. project staff assignments

B. project tea m acquisition

C. managing conflicting interests

D. communication methods

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #162

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

A. contingent risk

B. residual risk

C. potential risk

D. secondary risk

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #163

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A. Manage the timely completion of the project

B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required

C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun

D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #164

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A. change control tools

B. expert judgment

C. meetings

D. analytical techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #165

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

A. influencing

B. leadership

C. motivation

D. coaching

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #166

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

A. Define Scope

B. Develop Project Management Plan

C. Plan Scope Management

D. Plan Quality Management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #167

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A. performance measurement criteria

B. source selection criteria

C. product acceptance criteria

D. phase exit criteria

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #168

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A. Earned value management

B. Forecasting

C. Critical chain methodology

D. Critical path methodology

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #169

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A. Identify Risks

B. Plan Risk Management

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #170

Which element does a project charter contain?

A. Management reserves

B. Work breakdown structure

C. Stakeholder list

D. Stakeholder register

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #171

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

A. tangible

B. targeted

C. organized

D. variable

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #172

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

A. appetite

B. tolerance

C. threshold

D. management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #173

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A. Manage Project Team

B. Acquire Project Team

C. Plan Human Resource Management

D. Develop Project Team

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #174

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A. tracking

B. scoping

C. timing

D. defining

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #175

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A. Information management systems

B. Work performance reports

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Data gathering and representation

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #176

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A. Cause-and-effect diagram

B. Histogram

C. Control chart

D. Scatter diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #177

High-level project risks are included in which document?

A. Business case

B. Risk breakdown structure

C. Project charter

D. Risk register

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #178

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A. organizational process assets

B. a requirements traceability matrix

C. the project charter

D. the project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #179

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A. portfolio

B. program

C. selection

D. sub portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #180

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A. change requests

B. team performance assessments

C. project staff assignments

D. project documents updates

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #181

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A. negotiation

B. organizational theory

C. meeting

D. networking

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #182

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Manage Project Team

B. Collect Requirements

C. Sequence Activities

D. Direct and Manage Project Work

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #183

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A. Supportive

B. Leading

C. Neutral

D. Resistant

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #184

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A. Project statement of work

B. Business case

C. Accepted deliverable

D. Work performance information

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #185

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database

B. Historical information and the stakeholder register

C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database

D. Project documents and historical information

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #186

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A. Product performance

B. Budget process

C. Collective capabilities

D. Organizational strategy

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #187

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

A. objectives

B. schedule

C. product

D. approach

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #188

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

A. Push

B. Pull

C. Interactive

D. Iterative

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #189

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A. Build vs

B. Expert judgment

C. Alternatives identification

D. Product analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #190

Most experienced project managers know that:

A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK? Guide

B. there is no single way to manage a project

C. project management techniques are risk free

D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #191

The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project

B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result

C. Describe the project in great detail

D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #192

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A. Staffing level is highest at the start

B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start

C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start

D. The cost of changes is highest at the start

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #193

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A. structure

B. process asset

C. matrix

D. breakdown structure

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #194

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Resource availability

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Team performance assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #195

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A. Risk register

B. Risk audits

C. Risk urgency assessment

D. Risk probability and impact assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #196

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A. Risk register

B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C. Risk management plan

D. Risk category

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #197

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

A. Organizational standard processes

B. Marketplace conditions

C. Historical information

D. Templates

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #198

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Executing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #199

Organizations perceive risks as:

A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives

B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives

C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives

D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #200

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A. Project stakeholders

B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C. Project manager and project team

D. Project manager and project sponsor

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #201

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A. Schedule management plan

B. Project management plan

C. Quality management plan

D. Resource management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #202

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables

B. accuracy of the work deliverables

C. formalizing approval of the scope statement

D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #203

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

A. Templates, forms, and standards

B. Change requests

C. Product analysis

D. Project assumptions

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #204

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A. Activity list

B. Project plan

C. Activity duration estimates

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #205

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Identify Risks

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #206

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives

B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place

C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events

D. Removal of project risk

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #207

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

A. Functional managers and manager of project managers

B. Functional managers only

C. Project managers only

D. Technical managers and project managers

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #208

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A. Root cause analysis

B. Risk probability and impact assessment

C. Expert judgment

D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #209

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases

B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases

C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases

D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #210

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Plan Risk Responses

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #211

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A. Customer request

B. Market demand

C. Technological advance

D. Strategic opportunity

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #212

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #213

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A. Decomposition

B. Benchmarking

C. Inspection

D. Checklist analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #214

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A. The Delphi technique

B. Nominal group technique

C. Affinity diagram

D. Brainstorming

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #215

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A. Final phase of the project

B. Start of the project

C. End of the project

D. Midpoint of the project

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #216

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #217

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan

C. Developing and maintaining the plan

D. Execution of deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #218

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A. Pareto

B. Ishikawa

C. Shewhart-Deming

D. Delphi

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #219

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A. BAC

B. EAC

C. ETC

D. WBS

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #220

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A. Plan contracting

B. Requesting seller responses

C. Selecting seller's

D. Planning purchase and acquisition

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #221

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A. Project document updates

B. Project scope statement changes

C. Variance analysis

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #222

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A. Project calendar

B. Communications management plan

C. Organizational process assets updates

D. Project document updates

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #223

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A. Sequence Activities

B. Estimate Activity Resources

C. Develop Schedule

D. Control Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #224

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A. Expert judgment

B. Risk registry

C. Risk response planning

D. Interviewing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #225

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A. WBS directory

B. Activity list

C. WBS

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #226

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A. Risk assessment analysis

B. Make or buy analysis

C. Contract value analysis

D. Cost impact analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #227

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A. Inspection

B. Variance analysis

C. Expert judgment

D. Decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #228

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A. Project Time Management

B. Project Cost Management

C. Project Scope Management

D. Project Human Resource Management

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #229

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Plan Risk Management

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #230

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A. Acquire Project Team

B. Develop Project Management Plan

C. Manage Project Execution

D. Develop Project Charter

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #231

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A. Probability and impact matrix

B. Contingency analysis report

C. Risk urgency assessment

D. Rolling wave plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #232

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A. Influence diagrams

B. Brainstorming

C. Assumption analysis

D. SWOT analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #233

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A. corrective action

B. preventive action

C. non-conformance report,

D. defect repair

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #234

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #235

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A. Transfer

B. Share

C. Avoid

D. Accept

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #236

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

A. Teaming

B. Collective bargaining

C. Sharing

D. Working

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #237

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A. Three-point estimates

B. Resource leveling

C. Precedence diagramming method

D. Bottom-up estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #238

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A. stakeholder management strategy

B. communications management plan,

C. stakeholder register,

D. performance report

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #239

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing

C. Initiating

D. Planning

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #240

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A. Probability

B. Quantitative

C. Qualitative

D. Sensitivity

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #241

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

A. Authority

B. Role

C. Competency

D. Responsibility

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #242

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A. Preventive action

B. Risk management

C. Corrective action

D. Defect repair

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #243

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A. Risk management plan

B. Risk register

C. Change requests

D. Risk response plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #244

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C. Requirements management plan

D. Requirements documentation

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #245

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A. Ishikawa

B. Milestone

C. Influence

D. Decision tree

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #246

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

A. Exploit

B. Share

C. Enhance

D. Transfer

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #247

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A. Changing project specifications continuously

B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #248

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Brainstorming

B. Strategies for opportunities

C. Decision tree analysis

D. Risk data quality assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #249

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A. Functional

B. Projectized

C. Matrix

D. Balanced

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #250

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Risk register

B. Risk data quality assessment

C. Risk categorization

D. Risk urgency

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #251

Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A. Executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Planning

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #252

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%

B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%

C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%

D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #253

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #254

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A. Control Scope

B. Collect Requirements

C. Create WBS

D. Define Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #255

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A. Mitigate

B. Transfer

C. Exploit

D. Avoid

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #256

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager

B. Constantly evolving

C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #257

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A. Alternatives identification

B. Scope decomposition

C. Expert judgment

D. Product analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #258

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge

C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment

D. The product is needed in 250 days

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #259

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A. Define Activities

B. Create WBS

C. Define Scope

D. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #260

What is project management?

A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #261

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A. stakeholder register

B. project management plan

C. project scope statement

D. requirements management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #262

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype

B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor

C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance

D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #263

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #264

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A. Work performance information

B. Project management plan

C. Business case

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #265

The diagram below is an example of a:

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B. Project team

C. SWOT Analysis

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #266

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A. Project sponsor

B. Project manager

C. Program manager

D. Project management office (PMO)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #267

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A. Affinity

B. Scatter

C. Fishbone

D. Matrix

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #268

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A. planned

B. conceived

C. chartered

D. executed

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #269

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #270

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #271

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Project scope statement

C. WBS dictionary

D. Work performance measurements

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #272

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases

B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully

C. a recognized standard for the project management profession

D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #273

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A. Work performance reports

B. Assumptions logs

C. Network diagrams

D. Academic studies

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #274

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

A. Scope baseline

B. Scope management plan

C. Change management plan

D. Cost baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #275

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A. assumption log

B. quality checklist

C. risk register

D. contract type

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #276

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A. operate separately

B. move together in batches,

C. overlap and interact

D. move in a sequence

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #277

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A. facilitated workshops

B. observations

C. questionnaires and surveys

D. group creativity techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #278

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #279

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A. manager

B. success

C. deadline

D. scope

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #280

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A. Networking

B. Training

C. Negotiation

D. Issue log

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #281

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A. risk taking and risk avoidance

B. known risk and unknown risk

C. identified risk and analyzed risk

D. varying degrees of risk

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #282

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

A. Project

B. Scope

C. Contract

D. Program

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #283

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A. prototypes

B. expert judgment

C. alternatives identification

D. product analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #284

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A. highlight the need for root cause analysis

B. share the process documentation among stakeholders

C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities

D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #285

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment

B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default

C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis

D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #286

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A. Configuration management plan

B. Scope baseline

C. Requirements management plan

D. Schedule baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #287

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A. External

B. Lead

C. Discretionary

D. Mandatory

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #288

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit

B. Develop a risk register for risk planning

C. Evaluate each risk's importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #289

Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?

A. Acceptance of the work deliverables

B. Accuracy of the work deliverables

C. Approval of the scope statement

D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #290

Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Resource availability

C. Change control process

D. Team performance assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #291

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

A. Flowcharting

B. Earned value

C. Cost-benefit analysis

D. Pareto analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #292

Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?

A. External

B. Discretionary

C. Mandatory

D. Internal

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #293

Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

A. Customers

B. Project sponsors

C. Project management team

D. Insurance claims department

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #294

What are the components of the "triple constraint"?

A. Scope, time, requirements

B. Resources, time, cost

C. Scope, management, cost

D. Scope, time, cost

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #295

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Risk identification

B. Qualitative risk analysis

C. Risk management planning

D. Quantitative risk analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #296

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

A. Organizational Structure

B. Organizational Process Assets

C. Organizational Matrix

D. Organizational Breakdown Structures

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #297

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?

A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B. Force of nature, such as a flood

C. Risk threshold target

D. Crashing, front loading, or fast tracking

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #298

Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?

A. Templates, forms, and standards

B. Change requests

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Project assumptions

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #299

Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Qualitative risk analysis

B. Quantitative risk analysis

C. Risk management planning

D. Risk response planning

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #300

Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process?

A. Schedule Control

B. Activity Definition

C. Schedule Development

D. Activity Resource Estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #301

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment

C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives

D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #302

Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

A. Product scope description

B. Project charter

C. Preliminary project scope statement

D. Communications management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #303

Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

A. Schedule Analysis

B. Checklist Analysis

C. Assumption Analysis

D. Cost-Benefit Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #304

Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

A. Functional manager

B. Project manager

C. Functional manager supported by the project manager

D. Project management office

View answer

Correct Answer: C

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