Today's mid-level networking engineers, network administrators, network support technicians, and help desk technicians need a wider set of skills to be successful in their careers and to use the potential of network automation to scale and protect their networks. The CCNP and CCIE Company Core certifications educate candidates how to install, troubleshoot, protect, and automate enterprise-wide wired and wireless networks. Passing the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies Exam 350-401 will need much study. SPOTO wishes to assist you in passing the test by providing you with the necessary Cisco 350-401 exam dumps. Use the following practice exam to evaluate yourself. If you desire extra 350-401 exam dumps, please contact us for the lowest pricing available.   Question 1 An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?   A. service timestamps log uptime B. logging buffer C. logging host D. terminal monitor   Correct Answer: D   Question 2 Which signal strength and noise values meet the minimum SNR for voice networks?   A. signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm B. signal strength -68 dBm, noise 89 dBm C. signal strength -66 dBm, noise 90 dBm D. signal strength -67 dBm, noise 91 dBm   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 How do cloud deployments differ from on-premises deployments?   A. Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments. B. Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments C. Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments. D. Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments.   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?   A. provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration B. performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks C. used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches D. in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node   Correct Answer: C     Question 5 What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?   A. It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network. B. It allows LISP to be applied as a network virtualization overlay though encapsulation. C. It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router. D. It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 In which two ways does the routing protocol OSPF differ from EIGRP? (Choose two.)   A. OSPF supports an unlimited number of hops. EIGRP supports a maximum of 255 hops. B. OSPF provides shorter convergence time than EIGRP. C. OSPF is distance vector protocol. EIGRP is a link-state protocol. D. OSPF supports only equal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing. E. OSPF supports unequal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports only equal-cost load balancing.   Correct Answer: AD   Question 7 When is an external antenna used inside a building?   A. only when using 2.4 GHz B. only when using 5 GHz C. when it provides the required coverage D. only when using Mobility Express   Correct Answer: C   Question 8 An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which command set is required?   A. standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 preempt B. standby version 2 standby 300 priority 110 standby 300 preempt C. standby 300 priority 110 standby 300 timers 1 110 D. standby version 2 standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 preempt   Correct Answer: B   Question 9 How can an engineer prevent basic replay attacks from people who try to brute force a system via REST API?   A. Add a timestamp to the request in the API header. B. Use a password hash. C. Add OAuth to the request in the API header. D. Use HTTPS.   Correct Answer: A     Question 10 When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?   A. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value B. when a stack member fails C. when the stack primary is reset D. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack   Correct Answer: C    Conclusion Cisco Certified Network Associate 350-401 dumps from SPOTO help candidates understand the exam thoroughly. You'll have more work options and a better chance of earning a higher pay.

Cisco 300-610 exam validates a candidate’s ability to test your knowledge of data center infrastructure design, including network, compute, storage network and automation.   To pass the 300-610 DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure, a considerable amount of practices should be necessary. SPOTO intends to enable you to succeed in the test by offering all the relevant Cisco 300-610 exam dumps to you.   Now, evaluate yourself with the practice exam below. If you need more 300-610 dumps, contact us with the lowest pricing.   Question 1 When planning to deploy a load-balancing service as a managed node, which ACI configuration must be included?   A. BGP ECMP B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 device package C. inline load-balancing device D. ITD   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 An engineer is installing a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch with F2-Series /O Module. The company's strict security policy requires that the port be in-band. The engineer must also keep these considerations in mind: 1. The customer's security requirements mandate the use of a secure management mechanism that supports authentication and encryption. 2. The port should support management over IP. Which port type must be used to meet these requirements?   A. Ethernet port B. connectivity management port C. management port D. console port   Correct Answer: C   Question 3 An engineer must design a secondary site to prevent a catastrophic primary site failure. The applications must communicate across sites via the data link layer of the OSI model. The Layer 3 transport that is available for this solution consists of 10-Gb connections over Layer 3. Which two solutions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)   A. IS-IS B. VXLAN EVPN C. OTV D. vPC E. OSPF   Correct Answer: BD   Question 4 A network engineer must select a high availability feature for their data center. The solution must ensure network resilience, reduce network instability for Layer 3 routing protocols, and meet these requirements: 1. The device must notify its neighbors when the control plane is undergoing a restart 2. The solution must suppress routing flaps in case of stateful switchovers Which solution must be implemented?   A. BFD B. HSRP C. ISSU D. NSF   Correct Answer: D   Question 5 An engineer must design Layer 2 connectivity for a subnet between two data centers. The engineer must ensure seamless host mobility and optimal first-hop routing. Which attribute must be synchronized across all data centers to achieve this goal?   A. anycast gateway MAC B. multicast group C. NX-OS version D. DCNM to manage both fabrics   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 A customer deploys 32 virtualization hosts in a Cisco UCS domain. All hosts run in the same cluster and have identical hardware specifications. The operating system requires that all firmware is consistent across the hosts for driver support. The customer must provision additional interfaces later for expandability. Which feature of Cisco UCS Manager meets these requirements?   A. Initial vNIC Template B. Initial Service Profile Template C. Updating vNIC Template D. Updating Service Profile Template   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 A set of virtual machines must be live migrated from a data center to a disaster recovery site. The data center and disaster recovery sites are connected through an Inter-Pod Network topology. The gateway address of the virtual machine is the same across the data center and disaster recovery. Which Cisco Nexus feature supports this requirement?   A. FabricPath B. VXLAN EVPN C. FHRP D. VPLS   Correct Answer: B   Question 8 An engineer must connect a Cisco UCS B-Series based system to an existing large storage area network fabric. The deployment must support hardware-based load balancing, prevent Fibre Channel domain ID exhaustion, and enable all blade servers to be in the same VSAN. Which set of actions meets the requirements?   A. Configure Ethernet end-host automatic load balancing on the fabric interconnect. Set NL port mode on the SAN switch. B. Place all interfaces that face the fabric interconnects in the same VSAN. Disable zoning for the VSAN. C. Enable Fibre Channel end-host mode on the fabric interconnect and NPIV mode on the SAN switch. Create an F Port channel that faces the fabric interconnect. D. Connect the fabric interconnect to the E Ports on the SAN switch. Create a SAN port channel.   Correct Answer: C   Question 9 A SAN fabric is built between a pair of Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. The requirement is for the ISL to use the VSAN ID to forward traffic from multiple VSANs across the same physical link. Additionally, the Fibre Channel trace feature must be supported. Which ISL interface parameters are required to meet these requirements?   A. switchport mode E switchport mode trunk vsan B. switchport mode TE switchport mode trunk vsan C. switchport mode TE switchport mode trunk D. switchport mode E switchport mode trunk   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 A company is using Cisco UCS and wants a network orchestration solution to meet these requirements: 1. centrally manage compute and storage platforms 2. reduce the time it takes to detect an outage 3. easily exchange data with TAC to reduce resolution times The company does not have in-house knowledge about scripting. Which solution must the company choose?   A. Cisco HyperFlex B. Cisco DCNM C. Cisco Intersight D. Cisco UCS Central   Correct Answer: D   Conclusion CCNP 300-610 dumps are sure to help you understand the test better. You will quickly acquire the abilities that will help you succeed on the test and in the job if you practice more.

Cisco 300-410 exam validates a candidate’s ability to deploy and troubleshoot advanced routing technologies and services, including Layer 3, VPN services, infrastructure security, infrastructure services, and infrastructure automation.   To pass the 300-410 ENARSI Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services, a great number of practices should be required. SPOTO aims to help you to succeed in the exam by supplying all the necessary Cisco 300-410 exam dumps to you.   Now, assess yourself by the practice test below. If you need more 300-410 dumps, contact us with the lowest price.   Question 1 What are two MPLS label characteristics? (Choose two.)   A. The label edge router swaps labels on the received packets. B. Labels are imposed in packets after the Layer 3 header. C. LDP uses TCP for reliable delivery of information. D. An MPLS label is a short identifier that identifies a forwarding equivalence class. E. A maximum of two labels can be imposed on an MPLS packet   Correct Answer: CD   Question 2 What is a function of BFD?   A. failure detection dependent on routing protocols and media types B. peer recovery after a Layer 2 adjacency failure C. failure detection independent of routing protocols and media types D. peer recovery after a Layer 3 protocol adjacency failure   Correct Answer: C   Question 3 How is VPN routing information distributed in an MPLS network?   A. It is controlled using of VPN target communities. B. The top level of the customer data packet directs it to the correct CE device. C. It is established using VPN IPsec peers. D. It is controlled through the use of RD.   Correct Answer: A   Question 4 Which function does LDP provide in an MPLS topology?   A. It exchanges routes for MPLS VPNs across different VRFs. B. It provides a means for LSRs to exchange IP routes. C. It provides hop-by-hop forwarding in an MPLS topology for LSRs. D. It enables a MPLS topology to connect multiple VPNs to P routers.   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 An engineer creates a Cisco DNA Center cluster with three nodes, but all the services are running on one host node. Which action resolves this issue?   A. Enable service distribution from the Systems 360 page. B. Restore the link on the switch interface that is connected to a cluster link on the Cisco DNA Center. C. Click the master host node with al the services and select services to be moved to other hosts. D. Click system updates, and upgrade to the latest version of Cisco DNA Center.   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 An engineer configured Reverse Path Forwarding on an interface and noticed that the routes are dropped when a route lookup fails on that interface for a prefix that is available in the routing table. Which interface configuration resolves the issue?   A. ip verify unicast source reachable-via allow-default B. ip verify unicast source reachable-via l2-src C. ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx D. ip verify unicast source reachable-via any   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for several service providers. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local networks to all SP neighbors?   A. ip as-path access-list 1 permit.* ! router bgp 45123 neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out B. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^45123$ ! router bgp 45123 neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out C. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^45123 ! router bgp 45123 neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out D. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^$ ! router bgp 45123 neighbor SP-Neighbors filter-list 1 out   Correct Answer: D   Question 8 What is the function of BFD?   A. It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type. B. It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs. C. It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type. D. It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments.   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 Which table is used to map the packets in an MPLS LSP that exit from the same interface, via the same next hop, and have the same queuing policies?   A. RIB B. CEF C. LDP D. FEC   Correct Answer: D Question 10 An engineer received a ticket about a router that has reloaded. The monitoring system graphs show different traffic patterns between logical and physical interfaces when the router is rebooted. Which action resolves the issue?   A. Configure the snmp ifindex persist command globally. B. Clear the logical interfaces with snmp ifindex clear command C. Configure the snmp ifindex persist command on the physical interfaces. D. Trigger a new snmpwalk from the monitoring system to synchronize interface OIDs.   Correct Answer: A   Conclusion CCNP 300-410 dumps are guaranteed to help you have a better understanding of the exam. By practicing more, you will soon master the skills that will help you succeed on the exam and on the job.  

Cisco DC Core Technologies or DCCOR 350-601 is a CCIE and CCNP level test; you must pass this exam if you plan to take the Cisco DC Lab or are preparing for the CCNP Data Center certification. It is one of the two mandatory examinations for CCNP certification; the other test may be one of five data center concentration exams. The lack of a CCNA Data Center test in the more recent exam-style means specialties begin with the CCNP certification.   SPOTO provides the essential CCNP 350-601 study materials and training. Now, evaluate yourself using the sample test provided below. If you require additional 350-601 exam questions, please contact us for the lowest price.   Question 1 Which virtual MAC address is the default for HSRP version 2 group 10?   A. 0000.5E00.0110 B. 0000.0C9F.F00A C. 3716.1350.1C0A D. 0000.0C9F.F010   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 Which mroute state is created when Bidirectional PIM is deployed at a site?   A. *.G B. MVPN Type-6 C. MVPN Type-7 D. S.G   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 A small remote office is set to connect to the regional hub site via NSSA ASBR. Which type of LSA is sent to the remote office OSPF area?   A. type 7 LSA B. type 1 LSA C. type 5 LSA D. type 3 LSA   Correct Answer: A   Question 4 The engineer must configure SPAN on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch to get a capture of the traffic from these applications for an in-depth packet analysis. Which two SPAN characteristics must be considered? (Choose two.)   A. SPAN source ports can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions. B. The Ethernet, FC, vFC, port channel, SAN port channel can be used as SPAN source ports. C. A SPAN source port cannot be a destination SPAN port. D. Only Ethernet, FC, vFC, port channel port types can be used as SPAN source ports. E. The rx/tx option is available for VLAN or VSAN SPAN sessions.    Correct Answer: BC   Question 5 A customer has a requirement to deploy a cloud service and needs to have full control over the underlying OS, data and applications. Which cloud model meets this requirement?   A. MaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. IaaS   Correct Answer: D   Question 6 Due to a major version change, an engineer must perform a software upgrade on a Cisco Nexus Series switch. Which two technologies can be implemented to reduce disruptions to the network during the upgrade? (Choose two.)   A. vPC B. HSRP C. VDC D. MLAG E. PAgP    Correct Answer: AC   Question 7 What are two capabilities of the Cisco Network Assurance Engine? (Choose two.)   A. It validates that devices comply with network security policies. B. It predicts the impact of changes to the network. C. It predicts the network load on a data center. D. It ensures that network performance meets an SLA. E. It verifies the speed of network packet flows by using telemetry.   Correct Answer: AB   Question 8 What is an advantage of streaming telemetry over SNMP?   A. on-change traps sent to a receiver B. periodic push-based subscription messages C. periodic polling of the device status D. MD5-based authentication on polling   Correct Answer: B   Question 9 APIC EPG Resolution Immediacy is set to "Immediate". Which statement is true about the Deployment Immediacy for VMM domains associated to EPGs?   A. If "On demand" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware only when the first packet is received through the data path. B. It "Immediate" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware as soon as the leaf is booted. C. The "Immediate" and "On demand" options require a port group to be created on the VDS. D. If "On demand" is selected, the policy is programmed in the hardware only when the APIC detects a VM created in the EPG.   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 Which method must a network engineer use to upgrade the BIOS firmware or a Cisco UCS standalone C-Series rack mount server?   A. Use the U-ACPI Interface. B. Use the Cisco host upgrade utility. C. Use the Cisco hardware upgrade utility. D. Use the Cisco host firmware policy.   Correct Answer: B     Conclusion If you want to get your dream job in IT industry or be promoted, then passing CCNP 350-601 exam will help a lot. There are more CCNP 350-601 dumps on SPOTO.

To succeed in their professions and use the potential of network automation to scale and secure their networks, today's mid-level networking engineers, network administrators, network support technicians, and help desk technicians require a more extensive set of abilities. The CCNP and CCIE Company Core certifications teach you how to set up, diagnose, secure, and automate wired and wireless networks.   It will take a significant preparation to pass the 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies Exam. SPOTO aims to assist you in passing the exam by providing you with all of the Cisco 350-401 exam questions and answers you'll require.   Now evaluate yourself using the practice test provided below. If you require additional 350-401 test dumps, please get in touch with us for the best price.   Question 1 What does a YANG model provide?   A. standardized data structure independent of the transport protocols B. creation of transport protocols and their interaction with the OS C. user access to interact directly with the CLI of the device to receive or modify network configurations D. standardized data structure that can be used only with NETCONF or RESTCONF transport protocols   Correct Answer: A   Question 2 How do the RIB and the FIB differ?   A. RIB contains the interface for a destination, and the FIB contains the next hop information. B. FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the data plane. C. RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB. D. FIB contains routes learned through a dynamic routing protocol, and the RIB contains routes that are static or directly connected.   Correct Answer: C   Question 3 What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?   A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?   A. provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration B. performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks C. used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches D. in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 A customer wants to connect a device to an autonomous Cisco AP configured as a WGB. The WGB is configured properly; however, it fails to associate to a CAPWAP-enabled AP. Which change must be applied in the advanced WLAN settings to resolve this issue?   A. Disable FlexConnect local switching. B. Disable AAA override. C. Enable Aironet IE. D. Enable passive client.   Correct Answer: A   Question 6 How do stratum levels relate to the distance from a time source?   A. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. B. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. C. Stratum 15 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source. D. Stratum 15 devices are an authoritative time source.   Correct Answer: B   Question 7 What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)   A. LED lights B. rogue AP C. radar D. fire alarm E. conventional oven Correct Answer: BC   Question 8 When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?   A. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value B. when a stack member fails C. when the stack primary is reset D. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack   Correct Answer: C   Question 9 What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?   A. The number of hops takes to reach the authoritative time source. B. The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server. C. The amount of offset between the device clock and true time. D. The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 What is YANG used for?   A. scraping data via CLI B. processing SNMP read-only polls C. describing data models D. providing a transport for network configuration data between client and server   Correct Answer: C     Conclusion SPOTO’s Cisco Certified Network Associate 350-401 dumps assist candidates in fully comprehending the exam. You’ll have more job opportunities and a better chance of making more money.

Cisco Systems offers the CCNP Service Provider certification, demonstrating competency with advanced configuration and management of service provider networks. The CCNP Service Provider certification is respected and challenging to obtain.   In order to get the CCNP 350-501 Service Provider certification, the CCNP 350-501 dumps and training you need will be provided by SPOTO. Now, evaluate yourself by using the demos below. If you require more 350-501 exam dumps, please get in touch with us for the best price.   Question 1 What is the function of Cisco NFV infrastructure platform?   A. It offers decentralized logging. B. It offers consistent performance. C. It does not have a security audit feature. D. It does not offer high availability.   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 Which function does RSVP perform in a Cisco MPLS TE environment?   A. It reserves the bandwidth along the path between the head-end and tail-end router. B. It signals to LDP protocol along the path that a Cisco MPLS TE will be configured. C. It reserves bandwidth for LDP sessions between routers participating in a Cisco MPLS TE. D. It establishes targeted LDP sessions between neighbors that are directly connected.   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 While an engineer deploys a new Cisco device to redistribute routes from OSPF to BGP, they notice that not all OSPF routes are getting advertised into BGP. Which action must the engineer perform so that the device allows O, OIA, OE1 and OE2 OSPF routes into other protocols?   A. Configure the keyword nssa in the redistribution entry. B. Configure the keywords internal and external in the redistribution entry. C. Configure the synchronization keyword in the global BGP configuration. D. Configure the device to pass only O and E2 routes through it.   Correct Answer: B   Question 4 A new PE router is configured to run OSPF as an IGP with LDP on all interfaces. The engineer is trying to prevent black holes after convergence when the PE device loses an LDP session with other PE routers. Which action must the engineer take to implement LDP session protection on a new PE router?   A. Configure the mpls ldp session protection and mpls label protocol ldp commands on the new PE router that connect to the CE routers. B. Configure the new PE router with the mpls ldp session protection command on interfaces with directly connected neighbors. C. Configure the new PE router with the mpls ldp session protection command and on neighboring routers that connect to this new PE router. D. Configure the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept and mpls ldp session protection commands on the interfaces on the new PE router that connect to the CE routers.   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 Which two features describe TI-LFA? (Choose two.)   A. TI-LFA leverages the post-convergence path that carries data traffic after a failure. B. Unlike RLFA TI-LFA works without the PQ node and provides double segment failure protection C. Tl-LFA uses PQ or P and Q nodes on the post-convergence path to compute the backup path. D. TI-LFA works with point of local repair when the PQ node supports only LDP capability. E. Post-convergence, T-LFA considers the next-hop neighbor to calculate the backup repair path.   Correct Answer: AC   Question 6 What is a characteristic of MVPN?   A. It creates GRE tunnels to route multicast traffic over a service provider IP core. B. It allows VRF traffic to use the service provider MPLS VPN to route multicast traffic. C. It uses pseudowires to route unicast and broadcast traffic over either a service provider MPLS or IP core. D. It bypasses the use of MPLS in the service provider core and transmits packets using IP only.   Correct Answer: B   Question 7 How is a telemetry session established for data analytics?   A. A destination initiates a session to a router. B. A router initiates a session using the dial-out mode to a destination. C. The destination initiates a session using the dial-out mode to the router. D. A router requests the data using Telnet   Correct Answer: B   Question 8 An engineer must implement QoS to prioritize traffic that requires better service throughout the network. The engineer stated by configuring a class map to identify the high-priority traffic. Which additional tasks must the engineer perform to implement the new QoS policy?   A. Attach the class map to a policy map that designates the action to be taken on the classified traffic and then attach the policy map to an interface using a service policy. B. Attach the class map to a policy map that sets the minimum bandwidth allocated to the classified traffic and designates the action to be taken on the traffic. C. Attach the class map to a policy map within a VRF to segregate the high-priority traffic and then attach the policy map to an interface in another VRF. D. Create a route map to manipulate the routes that are entered into the routing table and then attach the route map to an interface using a service policy.   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 What is the role of NSO?   A. Maintains data storage. B. Provides public cloud services for customers that need Internet access. C. Provides network monitoring services for Layer 3 devices. D. Controls the turn-up of a device.   Correct Answer: D   Question 10 A network engineer is configuring RIP as the routing protocol between multiple PEs and CEs. The engineer must avoid advertising the same routes back to their sources. Which action should be performed on the routers to accomplish this task?   A. Configure a different route distinguisher for each prefix. B. Enable bidirectional forwarding detection on each device. C. Define VRFs on each device to separate the traffic. D. Define the site of origin on each interface.   Correct Answer: D   Conclusion It is normal to feel tense, but this sensation will pass away once you study diligently, and practice more than 90% demos on the 350-501 SPCOR, and then you’ll secure an incredible result on the actual exam. This is a test that, if passed, will alter the track of your life. You’ll almost certainly have a better chance of obtaining work, and you’ll also receive a raise in compensation.

If you’re concerned about failing the Cisco 350-801 (Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies) exam due to a lack of preparation, you no longer need to be. Cisco 350-801 latest dumps with fully verified answers.   SPOTO has gathered an exhaustive collection of Cisco 350-801 test questions and answers to assist you in preparing for the exam. We have assembled a database of actual Cisco 350-801 test questions and answers to assist you in preparing for and passing the exam on your first attempt.   Question 1 A user reports that when receiving an inbound call on their IP Phone from the PSTN they are unable to transfer this call to another PSTN number. What is the reason for this failure?   A. The incoming calling search space of the SIP trunk does not include the partition of the line in the lP phone. B. The service parameter related to Offnet to Offnet Call Transfer is set to TRUE. C. The IP phone is configured with the wrong region. D. The gateway is configured with the wrong device pool.   Correct Answer: B   Question 2 An engineer is confining a Cisco Unified Border Element to allow the video endpoints to negotiate without the Cisco Unified Border Element interfering in the process. What should the engineer configure on the Cisco Unified Border Element to support this process?   A. Configure a transcoder for video protocols. B. Configure path-thru content sdp on the voice service. C. Configure codec transparent on the dial peers. D. Configure a hardcoded codec on the dial peers.   Correct Answer: B   Question 3 An engineer is configuring IP telephony The network relies on DHCP to provide TFTP server addresses to the endpoints. Policy requires the endpoints to receive two server addresses. Which DHCP option must be configured?   A. 66 B. 143 C. 150 D. 166   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 A customer enters no ip domain lookup on the Cisco lOS XE gateway to suppress the interpreting of invalid commands as hostnames. Which two commands are needed to restore DNS SRV or A record resolutions?   A. ip dhcp excluded-address B. ip dhcp pool C. ip domain lookup D. ip dhcp-sip   Correct Answer: C   Question 5 A remote office has a less than optimal WAN connection and experiences packet loss, delay, and jitter. Which VolP codec should be used in this situation?   A. G.722.1 B. G.711alaw C. iL.BC D. G.729A   Correct Answer: D   Question 6 An administrator troubleshoots call flows and suspects that there are issues with the dial plan. Which tool enables a quick analysis of the dial plan and provides call flows of dialed digits?   A. Digit Analysis Analyzer B. Dial Plan Analyzer C. Cisco Dial Plan Analyzer D. Dialed Number Analyzer   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 Users want their mobile phones to be able to access their Cisco Unity Connection mailboxes with only having to enter their voicemail pin at the login prompt when calling the pilot number. Where should an engineer configure this feature?   A. transfer rules B. greetings C. alternate extensions D. message settings   Correct Answer: C   Question 8 Which SNMP service must be activated manually on the Cisco UCM after installation?   A. Connection SNMP Agent B. Host Resources Agent C. SNMP Master Agent D. Cisco CallManager SNMP   Correct Answer: D   Question 9 An engineer is going to redesign a network, and while looking at the QoS configuration, the engineer sees that a portion of the network is marked with AF42. Which type of traffic is marked with this tag?   A. video conference B. voice C. signaling D. streaming video   Correct Answer: D   Question 10 Which certificate does the Disaster Recovery System in Cisco UCM use to encrypt its communications?   A. Cisco CallManager B. Cisco Tomcat C. CAPF D. IPsec   Correct Answer: D   Conclusion The Cisco CLCOR 350-801 exam must acquire the Cisco Certified Specialist – Collaboration Core certification and two additional renowned accolades. This examination confirms the examinee's capacity to work with complicated collaborative features and deliver practical answers to their challenges in particular. SPOTO provides complimentary CCNP 350-801 dumps for the Cisco 350-801 test. You can also try out the Cisco 350-801 practice tests free of charge before you decide to purchase them.

Today’s mid-level networking engineers, network administrators, network support technicians, and help desk technicians need a broader range of skills to succeed in their professions and utilize the potential of network automation to scale and secure their networks. The CCNP and CCIE Company Core certifications teach you how to configure, troubleshoot, secure, and automate wired and wireless networks across an enterprise. Passing the 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies Exam will take a significant amount of preparation. SPOTO wants to help you pass the exam by supplying you with all of the Cisco 350-401 exam dumps you’ll need. Now, use the practice test provided below to assess yourself. Please contact us for the cheapest price if you require additional 350-401 dumps.   Question 1 What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?   A. initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically B. pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers C. onboarding of SD-WAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay D. gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers   Correct Answer: C   Question 2 An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?   A. WPA2 Enterprise B. WPA3 Personal C. WPA3 Enterprise D. WPA2 Personal   Correct Answer: B   Question 3 In Cisco DNA Center, what is the integration API?   A. southbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management B. westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data to be used by ITSM, IPAM and reporting C. an interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management D. northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management   Correct Answer: B   Question 4 A customer wants to connect a device to an autonomous Cisco AP configured as a WGB. The WGB is configured properly; however, it fails to associate to a CAPWAP-enabled AP. Which change must be applied in the advanced WLAN settings to resolve this issue?   A. Disable FlexConnect local switching. B. Disable AAA override. C. Enable Aironet IE. D. Enable passive client.   Correct Answer: A   Question 5 A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces. The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet. Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces? A. Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM. B. Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center. C. Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine. D. Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller.   Correct Answer: D   Question 6 A network engineer configures a WLAN controller with increased security for web access. There is IP connectivity with the WLAN controller, but the engineer cannot start a management session from a web browser. Which action resolves the issue?   A. Use a private or incognito session. B. Disable Adobe Flash Player. C. Disable JavaScript on the web browser. D. Use a browser that supports 128-bit or larger ciphers.   Correct Answer: D   Question 7 How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?   A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch. B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure. C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, while the routing protocol reconverges. D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.   Correct Answer: D   Question 8 Which function does a fabric wireless LAN controller perform in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?   A. manages fabric-enabled APs and forwards client registration and roaming information to the Control Plane Node B. coordinated configuration of autonomous non fabric access points within the fabric C. performs the assurance engine role for both wired and wireless clients D. is dedicated to onboard clients in fabric-enabled and nonfabric-enabled APs within the fabric   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?   A. The number of hops takes to reach the authoritative time source. B. The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server. C. The amount of offset between the device clock and true time. D. The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 Which method does Cisco DNA Center use to allow management of non-Cisco devices through southbound protocols?   A. It creates device packs through the use of an SDK. B. It uses an API call to interrogate the devices and register the returned data. C. It obtains MIBs from each vendor that details the APIs available. D. It imports available APIs for the non-Cisco device in a CSV format.   Correct Answer: A   Conclusion Cisco Certified Network Associate 350-401 dumps from SPOTO help candidates understand the exam thoroughly. You'll have more work options and a better chance of earning a higher pay.

Cisco DC Core Technologies, also known as DCCOR 350-601, is a CCIE and CCNP level exam that you must pass if you want to sit for the Cisco DC Lab or prepare for your CCNP Data Center certification. It is one of two required exams for CCNP certification; the other exam may be one of the five data center concentration exams. Finally, there is no CCNA Data Center exam in the newer exam format, so specializations begin at the CCNP level. SPOTO provides you with the required CCNP 350-601 dumps and training. Now, take the practice test below to see how you fare. If you need additional 350-601 dumps, please contact us for the best price.   Question 1 A network engineer must enable port security on all Cisco MDS Series Switches in the fabric. The requirement is to avoid the extensive manual configuration of the switch ports. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements?   A. Enable the auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. B. Activate CFS distribution and the auto-learning port security feature. C. Enable the auto-learning port security feature. D. Activate CFS distribution and the auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis.   Correct Answer: D   Question 2 A DevOps engineer must implement a bash script to query a REST API and re tum the available methods. Which code snippet completes the script?   A. TRACE B. OPTIONS C. POST D. DELETE   Correct Answer: B   Question 3 An engineer is implementing the Cisco ACI fabric and must create two different vPCs from leaf switches A and B. The vPCs are deployed as follows: 1. vPC1 encompasses ports Eth1/1 on leaf A and B and connects to server 1. 2. vPC2 encompasses port Eth1/2 on leaf A and B and connects to server 2   A leaf switch profile listing leaves A and Bis already configured. Which ACI object must be created to meet these requirements?   A. one access port interface policy group B. one vPC interface policy group C. two vPC interface policy groups D. two Port Channel interface policy groups   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 An engineer requires the Cisco Fabric Services to distribute NTP configuration only to the members within the scope of a VSAN that belongs to a Cisco Unified Network. Which scope distribution must be selected to meet this requirement?   A. Coordinated scope B. Logical scope C. Physical scope D. Uncoordinated scope   Correct Answer: B   Question 5 A customer requires a solution to orchestrate the configuration of storage arrays, firewalls, and Cisco ACI networking. Additionally, the orchestration product must support open automation and a service catalog. Which solution meets these requirements?   A. Cisco Workload Optimization Manager B. Cisco Inter sight C. Cisco Data Center Network Manager D. Cisco UCS Director   Correct Answer: D   Question 6 An engineer must generate a checkpoint of the running configuration on a Cisco Nexus Switch. The checkpoint file name must be called “before_maintenance” and should be used for recovering the switch to its premaintenance state. The rollback of the checkpoint to running configuration should only occur if no errors occur. Which two configuration commands must be used to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)   A. checkpoint file before_maintenance B. rollback checkpoint file before_maintenance stop-at-first-failure C. rollback running-config file before_maintenance atomic D. rollback running-config checkpoint before_maintenance E. checkpoint before_maintenance   Correct Answer: AC   Question 7 A network administrator must perform a system upgrade on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. Due to the recent changes by the security team: The AAA server is unreachable. AII TCP communication between the MDS 9000 Series Switch and AAA servers is disabled.   Which actions must be used to perform the upgrade?   A. Log in to a server storing the upgrade files remotely using a server-admin role and download the files to the MDS 9000 Series Switch using SFTP. B. Log in to a server storing the upgrade files remotely using a network admin role and download the files to the MDS 9000 Series Switch using HTTP. C. Log in locally to the MDS 9000 Series Switch using a network-admin role and download the upgrade files from the remote TFTP server. D. Log in locally to the MDS 9000 Series Switch using a server-admin role and download the upgrade files from the remote FTP server.   Correct Answer: C   Question 8 An engineer is performing a configuration on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch. The requirement is for the current Fibre Channel IDs in VSAN 120 to be saved across reboots. The Cisco environment also must integrate with a third-party solution that requires persistent Fibre Channel IDs for the VSAN. The WWN of the Cisco switch must be XXXXX and its Fibre Channel ID0x070128. Which command set meets these requirements?   A. vsan 120 wwn XXXXXX fcid 0x070128 fcdomain fcid preserve vsan 120 B. vsan 120 wwn XXXXXX fcid 0x070128 fabric-binding activate vsan 120 purge fcdomain fcid vsan 4 C. fabric-binding database vsan 120 vsan 120 wwn XXXXXX fcid 0x070128 D. fcdomain fcid database vsan 120 wwn XXXXXX fcid 0x070128 fcdomain fcid persistent vsan 120   Correct Answer: D   Question 9 A network engineer must create an EEM script that saves a copy of the running configuration on bootflash and writes a message to syslog when a user saves the configuration to a Cisco Nexus switch. Which configuration set should be applied to complete this task?   A. event manager applet local-backup event cli match "write memory" action 1 cli copy running-config bootflash:/current_config.txt action 2 syslog msg Configuration saved and copied to bootflash action 3 event-default B. event manager applet local-backup event cli match "copy running-config startup-config" action 1 cli copy running-config bootflash:/current_.config.txt   action 2 syslog msg Configuration saved and copied to bootflash action 3 event-default C. event manager applet local-backup event cli match "write memory" action 1 cli copy running-config bootflash:/current_config.txt action 2 snmp-trap strdata "configuration saved and copied to bootflash" D. event manager applet local-backup event cli match "copy running-config startup-config" action 1 cli copy running-config bootflash:/current_config.txt action 2 syslog msg configuration saved and copied to bootflash   Correct Answer: B   Question 10 Which statement about the impact of a rolling EPLD upgrade on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch is true?   A. The upgrade can be performed from the standby supervisor module. B. Only the modules that are being upgraded are disrupted. C. All modules on the switch are disrupted. D. An EPLD upgrade is nondisruptive.   Correct Answer: B   Conclusion If you want to get your dream job in the IT industry or advance your career, passing the CCNP 350-601 exam will be highly beneficial. SPOTO has more CCNP 350-601 exam dumps.