The Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification is designed for individuals who are just starting in information technology. It is intended to certify their competence in the following areas: IP services, security fundamentals, IP connectivity, automation and programmability, network fundamentals, and network access. Practitioners seeking this associate-level certificate must pass one qualifying exam, the 200-301 CCNA, and have at least one year of experience in roles involving the implementation and administration of Cisco solutions. Additionally, applicants should have a firm grasp of network fundamentals and basic IP addressing. The Cisco 200-301 exam is a 120-minute examination offered in English and Japanese. You can take this exam online from your home or office convenience or at one of the Pearson VUE authorized testing centers located throughout the world. To register for the exam, candidates must first create an account with Pearson VUE, the official administrator of all Cisco certification exams, and pay the $300 registration fee. You'll find everything you need to prepare for this certification exam on the official website. To begin, enroll in the dedicated training course Implementing & Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA). It is accessible in either the physical or virtual classroom and includes instructor-led lectures and self-study sections. Alternatively, you can utilize other Cisco tools, such as self-study resources from Cisco Press, the CCNA Preparation Bundle, dedicated webinars, and the CCNA Guided Study Group. With the CCNA certificate attached to your resume, you will undoubtedly catch the eye of prospective employers. It is widely accepted that IT professionals who have earned the CCNA certification earn increased trust due to their enhanced skills and knowledge in administering even the most complex networking systems. With this certification, you can work as a Network Engineer, a Network Administrator, a Network Support Technician, or a Help Desk Technician, among other positions. Even with limited experience in the field, you can earn approximately $79,000 per year in any of these positions. SPOTO provides the training and practice with everything you need to clear the CCNA 200-301 exam in an updated way. 1. You’ll learn how to construct simple local area networks and be a successful network engineer. 2. You’ll learn how to configure Routers and Switches on a fundamental level. 3. You’ll discover how to configure IPV4 and IPV6 addressing schemes. 4. You’ll gain knowledge of Virtual Networking. 5. You’ll discover how to configure routers, switches, and end devices to enable local and remote network resources access.  6. You’ll learn how to configure routers, switches and end devices to provide access to local and remote network resources.    Though training helps candidates understand what is expected of them as they prepare for a specific exam, it cannot possibly cover all topics that may be asked on the exam. Therefore, candidates should work on expanding their knowledge of the outlined topics to ensure that all areas of the CCNA are covered through self-study. A single source or method of study is not always sufficient to pass the exams due to the technology domain’s complexity, dynamic, and ever-changing nature. As a result, candidates should always strive to stay current with technological advancements in their field as they seek to broaden their knowledge. Consider participating in various CCNA forums on the internet to learn what people are doing to prepare for the CCNA certification exams, or candidates can turn to SPOTO to know more information about the CCNA training courses.

Cisco 350-701 SCOR exam assesses a broad range of skills, including network, cloud, and content security, endpoint protection and detection, and secure network access, visibility, and enforcement. By covering these fundamental security technologies, you will gain the knowledge required to pass the 350-701 SCOR. SPOTO provides you with all the necessary CCNP 350-701 dumps and training. If you need more 350-701 dumps, contact us with the lowest price.   Question 1 In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?   A. Smurf B. distributed denial of service C. cross-site scripting D. rootkit exploit   Correct Answer: C   Question 2 Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?     A. user input validation in a web page or web application B. Linux and Windows operating systems C. database D. web page images   Correct Answer: A   Question 3 Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)   A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values. B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries. C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier. D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries. E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.   Correct Answer: AB   Question 4 Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two)   A. Patch for cross-site scripting. B. Perform backups to the private cloud. C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint. D. Install a spam and virus email filter. E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program   Correct Answer: DE   Question 5 Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)   A. Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites. B. Define security group memberships. C. Revoke expired CRL of the websites. D. Use antispyware software. E. Implement email filtering techniques.   Correct Answer: AE   Question 6 Which parameter is required when configuring a Netflow exporter on a Cisco Router?   A. Exporter description B. Exporter name C. Source interface D. DSCP value   Correct Answer: B   Question 7 For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs? (Choose two)   A. SCP B. HTTP C. LDAP D. SDP E. subordinate CA   Correct Answer: BC   Question 8 A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?   A. snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy B. snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3 C. snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy D. snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? (Choose two)   A. AES-CBC B. AES-BAC C. HMAC-SHA1/SHA2 D. Triple AMC-CBC E. AES-ABC   Correct Answer: AC   Question 10 A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work What is the reason for this failure? A. Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies. B. The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format. C. The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended. D. The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.   Correct Answer: A    Conclusion CCNP and CCIE Security Core SCOR 350-701 training and practice, from SPOTO allows you to succeed on the exam the first time and is the only self-study resource approved by Cisco. SPOTO provides preparation tips and test-taking strategies to assist you in identifying areas of weakness and strengthening both your conceptual and practical knowledge.

What is the PMP? The Project Management Professional (PMP) credential is a widely recognized industry standard for project managers. The PMP credential demonstrates the experience, education, ability, and capability necessary to lead and direct projects. The Project Management Professional (PMP) is the most sought-after certification offered by the Project Management Institute (PMI). To make earning the world’s most widely recognized project management certification less stressful and more accessible, we’ve included detailed information about the PMP Certification Process, PMP Certification Training Courses, and PMP Certification Requirements. Project Management Academy has everything you need to understand the PMP certification requirements and process, so you can begin studying immediately! Why is the PMP required? The PMP has several advantages. Firstly, in North America, the median salary for project professionals is 25% higher than those without. Also, the PMP is beneficial. The PMP is the top project management certification in North America, according to CIO magazine, because it demonstrates that you possess the specific skills employers seek, a commitment to excellence, and the ability to perform at the highest levels. Besides, the PMP demonstrates that you work more efficiently. It indicates that you can drive business results and expand your organization’s impact both in the office and globally. How to prepare for PMP exam? 1. Refresh your memory with the PMP Examination Content Outline. Examining the PMP Examination content outline document is critical to passing the PMP exam. This document, published by PMI, is the most credible source for the following: Questions are classified according to the Process areas. According to PMI’s Role Delineation Study, the following is a list of the tasks, abilities, and knowledge required. This provides a high-level overview of the material covered in the exam. Once you believe you have a good command of the PMBOK’s (or other study guides) content, go through these and make sure nothing sounds unfamiliar. 2. Construct a study plan. You must approach obtaining your PMP certification as a project as well. Create a plan that details all the steps necessary to earn your PMP certification. The study plan is one of the sub-plans to this, and it is a critical one. Divide your study sessions into manageable chunks and create a study plan that includes deadlines for reading the PMBoK, practicing mock tests, and studying various materials, among other things. 3. Mock Exams to acclimate to the exam Mock Tests are frequently an excellent indicator of your exam readiness. They are handy for identifying gaps in your knowledge of project management. After completing a test, you can review the results and concentrate on areas where you can improve.Taking full-length mock tests is also critical for another reason: it is not easy to sit in one spot for four hours at a time and concentrate solely on answering questions. It’s an intimidating and mentally taxing experience on both physical and mental levels. It is, however, required to earn your PMP certification. You’d better adjust to it quickly before it’s too late. 4. Enroll in an accredited Registered Education Provider’s formal study course (REPs). Registered Education Providers (R.E.P.s) of the Project Management Institute are organizations that PMI has approved to offer project management training. PMI began accrediting training providers to create a global network of high-quality education providers capable of assisting hundreds of thousands of PMI Project Management Professional (PMP) ® credential aspirants and holders.There are several reasons you might want to enroll in a PMP training course. These courses provide customized PMP study materials and best practices for the PMP Exam preparation. They provide a quick introduction to the various project management concepts, terminology, formulae, and other critical inputs required to prepare for the PMP exam. 

The Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification is a globally recognized project management credential that assesses an individual’s ability to manage a professional project’s people, processes, and business priorities. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), which administers the certification, over one million PMP holders worldwide. Project managers can use it in virtually any industry, including health, construction, information technology (IT), and business. SPOTO provides PMP dumps covering the most current best practices defined in the PMBOK Guide - Sixth Edition and aligns with the most recent PMP Examination Content Outline 2021.   QUESTION 1 A project manager is asked to implement a hybrid approach that will replace a predictive approach on an upcoming project How should the project manager adjust their responsibilities accordingly? A. Request a scrum master to focus on the collaboration while the project manager focuses on the coordination. B. Delegate coordination activities to the product owner so the project manager can focus on managing collaboration. C. Become a servant leader by supporting team collaboration and removing impediments. D. Introduce new communication tools to the project team members. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2 A project manager is managing a hybrid project There is software in place to access the repository of project artifacts However, a few stakeholders are reporting that they are unable to find the latest project schedule.  What should the project manager do? A. Make sure all stakeholders have access to the system and know where to find project artifacts. B. Escalate the issue to the steering committee and ask them to deal with the stakeholders' lack of training. C. Send the project schedule via email to the stakeholders who need that information. D. Advise the project management office (PMO) that there is a resource gap for sharing project artifacts effectively. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3 A project is in the execution phase During a tew planning ss the team brought up dependences and risks based on their knowledge of other projects. The project manager also received questions from the company in terms of how and when the team planned to perform acceptance testing and training activities. What should the project manager do next? A. Add contingency in the schedule to account for dependencies and risks, then review it with the team. B. Create a log to track risks, assumptions, issues, and dependencies and establish a periodic review with the stakeholders. C. Document the project management plans and share them with the company and all team members via email for review. D. Engage with the company and the project team to determine the best course of action. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4 A project selection committee is shortlisting projects for the coming year. Which selection criteria should the project manager recommend? A. Projects with the least associated risks B. Projects with the least duration C. Projects with maximum revenue generation D. Projects that maximize the business value Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5 A project manager is assigned to develop a wire bending machine midway through the design phase. The project manager discovered that the team did not have any test cases or acceptance criteria for the equipment The project manager started communication with the team to move the project forward. What should the project manager do first at this point? A. Meet with the key stakeholders to identify the proper product concept for the development team. B. Meet with the hardware design engineers to identify the minimum performance required to establish a market for the machine. C. Meet with the sales and marketing teams to identify the requirements that were collected during the interview sessions with potential customers. D. Meet with the quality planning manager to identify the reason why the quality plan was not created yet. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6 A project team is experiencing conflict between two team members. Team member A feels that team member B is always talking over team member A and does not listen to any advice. Team member B is not willing to listen to feedback. What should the project manager do to resolve the issue? A. Report the performance issue to both of the team members' supervisors. B. Move one of the team members to a different project team. C. Modify the communications management plan and resend it to the team. D. Review the ground rules for collaboration within the team. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7 A key import supply has suffered a delay of 6 months. The delay affects a functionality that is needed to complete the project on time. The project manager learns from the project team that another team is working on a product that could work as a solution, but it is still a prototype. What should the project manager do to accelerate this solution? A. Perform iterative planning with the team to use the prototype. B. Prioritize the backlog with the customer to remove the feature. C. Contact the other project team and ask them to organize a demo of the prototype. D. Check the burnup charts to see what progress has been made to integrate the solution. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8 A project manager is using a hybrid approach for a project The project team created and reviewed the risk log with the stakeholders at the beginning of the project However, midway through the project, the project team and stakeholders became misaligned with the risks and mitigation strategies. When should the risks be reviewed to ensure alignment between the project team and the stakeholders? A. During the risk register update B. During each steering committee meeting C. During the retrospectives D. During each iteration and review Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9 During a team meeting, the project manager asks the team to complete a personality assessment to help everyone understand themselves and one another better The project manager ayes the results and realizes that more than one hat of team members are introverts. What should the project manager do? A. Adjust the lighting and ambient sounds in the work and common areas to create a relaxing work atmosphere. B. Present brainstorming topics a day before the session so the team can reflect and contribute more fully during the session. C. Ensure the team understands that their input needs to be fully articulated and explained to all team members during daily standups. D. Require everyone to share personal details at the start of each team meeting to allow team members to get to know one another. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10 A large project is affecting the neighborhood in which it is located. The neighbors are not satisfied with the project, and their resistance to the project may affect the project deadline. What two actions should the project manager take? (Choose two)   A. Ask the mayor of the city to use their authority to stop neighborhood resistance B. Set up a meeting with neighborhood representatives to win their cooperation. C. Send letters to the neighbors and ask them kindly not to disturb the project D. Analyze the situation and find out what is causing the neighborhood's negative attitude. E. Ask the customer to extend the project deadline to allow time for conflict resolution.   Correct Answer: BD   Conclusion With SPOTO’s new PMP training and dumps, you can learn from industry experts and pass the PMP® exam on your first attempt.

The CCIE Collaboration certification is a highly regarded networking credential that recognizes network engineers' knowledge, abilities, and expertise. CCIE Collaboration v3.0 training will arm you with the technical expertise necessary to take on the industry’s most difficult Unified Communication assignments. The CCIE certification is recognized globally. Cisco recommends that the certification program and pattern be updated and upgraded on a regular basis. This is why it is one of the most widely demanded and accepted certifications in the information technology industry. The testing methodology, unmatched program quality, relevance, and value of the CCIE Collaboration certification are all reasons to choose and pursue this credential. Who should sign up? Network engineers passed the Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies exam (CLCOR 350-801). The CCIE Collaboration written exam qualifies you for the CCIE Collaboration lab exam version 3.0. Network engineers must employ an expert-level problem-solving process to support complex collaboration technologies and topologies that include options analysis. Designers of network infrastructures who create and support complex collaboration technologies and topologies. Students and professionals in the information technology and telecommunications sectors who wish to expand their knowledge and earn an internationally recognized professional certification that can help them advance their careers. What you can get from the CCIE Security training program? Learn Latest Technology Information technology is a very active field on a global scale. Every day there is an innovative technology designed to solve common problems in life. Obtaining the CCNP collaboration certification proves that you have a clear understanding of the latest technology. In addition, it shows that you can migrate your company's systems from old technology to current technology. Expand Networking Opportunities After earning Cisco CCNP Collaboration certification, you will have the honor to join a unique set of certified and skilled professionals. This group will help you find answers to some life problems encountered in your career. You will also have the opportunity to share solutions to challenging solutions encountered by your peers. In addition, this group of certified Cisco professionals can provide you with guidance on how to seek the technical knowledge necessary for your career. Get Promotions If you really need to climb the career ladder easily and quickly, then you need to learn new technologies that the world is embracing. Obtaining a certificate is a way to update knowledge to meet industry needs. Your employer will definitely promote you to a higher salary with a higher salary because you have the skills to work in these positions. The average annual salary of CCNP collaboration professionals is approximately $89,124. The positions you can apply for range from system administrators and consulting engineers to infrastructure engineers and senior engineers. Therefore, certification gives you the opportunity to advance in the company. Highlights of the training program 1. Dedicated CCIE Collaboration Racks until your Lab exam is passed. 2. Practical sessions are held in our 24-hour-a-day labs, where you can practice for as many hours as you wish. 3. CCIE Collaboration Lab training is delivered by certified CCIE Collaboration (lab) instructors with a minimum of five to fifteen years of industry experience. 4. Committed CCIE Collaboration certified Lab Instructors who provide immediate assistance with issues during the Lab exam preparation process. 5. Quick access to in-house practical workbooks. Prerequisite In fact, there are no formal prerequisites for the CCNP Collaboration certification. Ideal candidates should have 3-5 years of experience implementing collaboration solutions and have good knowledge in the exam topics.

If you’re worried about your Cisco 350-801 (Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies) exam and are ill-prepared, you no longer need to be. Get the most up-to-date Cisco 350-801 dumps with fully verified answers.   SPOTO has compiled a comprehensive collection of Cisco 350-801 exam questions and answers to guide you through your Exam preparation. We have compiled a database of real exam questions and answers for the Cisco 350-801 exam to help you prepare and pass on your first attempt.   Question 1 What are two functions of Cisco Expressway in the Collaboration Edge? (Choose two)   A. The Expressway-C and Expressway-E pair can interconnect H 323-to-SIP calls for voice. B. The Expressway-C and Expressway-E pair can enable connectivity from the corporate network to the PSTN via a T1/E1 trunk. C. Expressway-C provides encryption for Mobile and Remote Access but not for business-to-business communications. D. Expressway-E provides a perimeter network that separates the enterprise network from the Internet. E. Expressway-E provides a VPN entry point for Cisco IP phones with a Cisco AnyConnect client using authentication based on certificates.   Correct Answer: A, C   Question 2 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?   A. Enterprise Feature Access code for conference B. Block OffNet to OffNet Transfer C. Drop Ad Hoc Conference D. H.225 Block Setup destination   Correct Answer: C    Question 3 Which filed id configured to change the caller ID information on a SIP route pattern?   A. Called party Transformation Mask B. Route partition C. Calling party transformation Mask D. Connected Line ID Presentation Correct Answer: C   Question 4 An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own devices. One requirement is to keep this as simple as possible for end users. Which infrastructure element achieves these goals?    A. Cisco Unified Instant messaging and presence B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E C. Cisco Express Mobility D. Cisco Unified Border Element   Correct Answer: B    Question 5 A customer is deploying a SIP IOS gateway for a customer who requires that in-band DTMF relay is first priority and out-of-band DTMF relay is second priority. Which IOS entry sets the required priority?   A. dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify B. sip-notify dtmf-relay rtp-nte C. dtmf-relay cisco-rtp D. dtmf-relay sip-kmpl cisco-rtp   Correct Answer: A    Question 6 An engineer is asked to implement on-net/off-net call classification in Cisco UCM Which two components are required to implement this configuration? (Choose two)   A. route pattern B. route group C. SIP trunk D. SIP route patterns E. CTI route point   Correct Answer: C, E   Question 7 Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?   A. Pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list B. Pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list C. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern D. Pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description   Correct Answer: B   Question 8 What is set when using CoS to mark an Ethernet frame?   A. 802.1p User Priority bits B. IP ECN bits C. DCSP bits D. IPP bits   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 When setting a new primary DNS server in the Cisco UCM CLI what is required for the change to take affect?   A. restart of TFTP service B. restart of DirSync service C. restart of CallManager service D. restart of the network service   Correct Answer: D   Question 10 What is required when deploying co-resident VMs by using Cisco UCM?   A. Ensure that applications will perform QoS. B. Deploy the VMs to a server running Cisco UCM. C. Avoid hardware oversubscription. D. Provide a guaranteed bandwidth of 10 Mbps.   Correct Answer: D   Conclusion The Cisco CLCOR 350-801 exam is required to earn the Cisco Certified Specialist – Collaboration Core certification and two additional prestigious credentials. This test validates the examinee's ability to work with complex collaboration features and provide practical solutions to their problems in particular. SPOTO provides a complimentary CCNP 350-801 dumps for the Cisco 350-801 exam. You can also try out the Cisco 350-801 practice exams free of charge before you decide to purchase them.

The CCIE (Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert) security certification is a Cisco expert-level certification widely recognized as the most prestigious certification in the technology industry. The CCIE Security certification validates your expertise and knowledge of complex security solutions. Candidates who want to pursue a career in cyber security should prioritize this certification. The CCIE Security certification learning path will provide you with the high-level knowledge and skills required to implement cyber security services within the industry. What does the CCIE Security exam include? Obtaining the CCIE Security certification validates your ability to work with complex security solutions. To earn the CCIE Security certification, you must pass two exams: a qualifying exam covering fundamental security technologies and a hands-on lab exam covering security technologies and solutions across the entire network lifecycle, from design and deployment to operation and optimization. CCIE Security training program To succeed on both exams, you must familiarize yourself with both exam topics in detail. Our CCIE security training course will prepare you for the SCOR 350-701 and Lab examinations (v6.0). CCIE security online lessons will prepare you for the SCOR 350-701 (v1.0) exam, as well as senior-level security career opportunities. This exam is a prerequisite for the CCNP and CCIE security certifications. The CCIE security course will equip you with the expertise necessary to implement real Cisco security solutions. You will be able to give advanced threat protection against cybersecurity threats if you have these master talents. The new CCIE Security v6.0 Certification course is meant to train people for expert-level security-related job roles and to distinguish them as technical leaders. Programmability and automation are covered in the CCIE Security (v6.0) course. All theory lectures will be promptly followed by hands-on laboratory practices, which will be available 24 hours a day, seven days a week. What you can get from the CCIE Security training program? The CCIE Security training program's primary objective is to equip you with the ability to describe security concepts and strategies, TCP/IP, network application, and endpoint attacks, Cisco ASA, Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall, email content security features and functions, web content security features and functions, VPNs, cryptography solutions and algorithms, Cisco IOS Software Layer 2 and Layer 3 data plane controls, Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise and Stealthwatch Clouds. Throughout the CCIE Security v6.0 lab test course, you will acquire the skills and knowledge necessary to design, implement, operate, and optimize complex network situations. Additionally, you will gain hands-on expertise with automation for network engineers and network programmability. The exam that prepares you for today's expert-level job roles in security technology is the new CCIE Security certification program. CCIE Security now incorporates programmability and automation capabilities to assist you in scaling your security solutions. Prerequisite There are no formal prerequisites for the CCIE Security certification. However, it would help if you had a firm grasp of the exam topics before sitting for the exam. Before sitting for the CCIE security exam, candidates should have five to seven years of experience building, deploying, running, and optimizing security technologies and solutions.

Cisco DC Core Technologies or DCCOR 350-601 is a CCIE and CCNP level exam, this is the exam that you must pass if you intend to sit for the Cisco DC Lab or are preparing for your CCNP Data Center certification. It is one of two exams required for CCNP certification, the other exam may be one of the five data center concentration exams. Finally, there is no CCNA Data Center exam in the newer exam format, which means that specializations begin at the CCNP level.  SPOTO offers you all the necessary CCNP 350-601 dumps and training. Now, assess yourself by the practice test below. If you need more 350-601 dumps, contact us with the lowest price.   Question 1 Which two settings must be configured before enabling a Cisco UCS Manager domain for Cisco Intersight connectivity? (Choose two.)   A. SMTP servers B. SMTP reply-to address C. NTP servers D. syslog redirection E. DNS servers   Correct Answer: CE   Question 2 An engineer must configure Cisco IMC server management NIC for autonegotiation. Which setting should be selected?   A. shared LOM B. Cisco card C. dedicated D. shared LOM EXT   Correct Answer: C   Question 3 A network engineer is adding a Cisco HyperFlex data platform to the Cisco Intersight management portal. Which two components are required for Intersight to claim the Cisco HyperFlex data platform? (Choose two.)   A. device FQDN B. device claim code C. device public IP address D. device ID E. device serial number   Correct Answer: BD   Question 4 Where is the witness deployed in a two-node Cisco HyperFlex Edge deployment?   A. to the HyperFlex Edge two-node cluster B. to Cisco Intersight C. to a third-party cloud provider D. to an additional server with network access to HyperFlex Edge   Correct Answer: B   Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of this series of commands?   A. It reboots the server immediately. B. It activates the firmware on the next adapter boot. C. It updates the firmware on adapter 1/1/1 immediately. D. It verifies the firmware update on the server.   Correct Answer: B   Question 6 What is the benefit of adding Cisco HyperFlex Hardware Acceleration Cards to a HyperFlex deployment?   A. increased compression efficiency B. increased network throughput C. GPU acceleration D. offline encryption acceleration   Correct Answer: A   Question 7 When the default firmware package is set to a new version, which type of policy determines the liming of server reboots during the firmware upgrade?   A. diagnostics B. maintenance C. local disk D. BIOS   Correct Answer: B   Question 8 Which two hypervisors does Cisco HyperFlex support? (Choose two.)   A. OpenStack B. Citrix XenServer C. VMware vSphere D. RedHat KVM E. Microsoft Hyper-V   Correct Answer: CE   Question 9 An engineer changed a configuration and must perform a rollback. Which statement applies to a Cisco Nexus 5600 Series Switch?   A. The configuration rollback functionality is disabled when FCoE is enabled. B. A system checkpoint is generated automatically when the running configuration is saved to NVRAM. C. A user who is assigned to the network-operator user role can perform a rollback. D. Errors are skipped when an atomic rollback type is triggered.   Correct Answer: A   Question 10 Which statement about the impact of a rolling EPLD upgrade on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch is true?   A. The upgrade can be performed from the standby supervisor module. B. Only the modules that are being upgraded are disrupted. C. All modules on the switch are disrupted. D. An EPLD upgrade is nondisruptive.   Correct Answer: B     Conclusion If you want to get your dream job in IT industry or be promoted, then passing CCNP 350-601 exam will help a lot. There are more CCNP 350-601 dumps on SPOTO.

This CCNA training is classified as associate-level Cisco training, indicating intended for entry-level network administrators. This 200-301 CCNA certification course is beneficial for new IT professionals with at least a year of network administration experience, as well as experienced network administrators looking to validate their Cisco skills.   In order to pass Cisco Certified Network Associate (200-301 CCNA), SPOTO offers lots of significant online courses and dumps, which will make you pass the exam much more easily.   Now, assess yourself by the practice test below. If you need more 200-301 dumps, just contact us, and we’ll provide everything you need at the lowest price.   Question 1 Router 1 has a Fast Ethernet interface 0/0 with IP address 10.1.1.1. The interface is connected to a switch. This connection is then migrated to use 802.1Q trunking. Which of the following commands could be part of a valid configuration for Router 1's Fa0/0 interface?   A. interface fastethernet 0/0.4 B. dot1q enable C. dot1q enable 4 D. trunking enable E. trunking enable 4 F. encapsulation dot1q 4 G. Both A and F H. Both C and F   Correct Answer: G   Question 2 Router R1 has a router-on-a-stick configuration with two subinterfaces of interface G0/1: G0/1.1 and G0/1.2. Physical interface G0/1 is currently in a down/down state. The network engineer then configures a shutdown command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.1 and a no shutdown command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.2. Which answers are correct about the interface state for the subinterfaces?   A. G0/1.1 will be in a down/down state. B. G0/1.2 will be in a down/down state. C. G0/1.1 will be in an administratively down state. D. G0/1.2 will be in an up/up state. E. Both A and C F. Both B and C   Correct Answer: F   Question 3 A Layer 3 switch has been configured to route IP packets between VLANs 1, 2 and 3 using switched virtual interfaces (SVIs), which connect to subnets 172.20.1.0/25, 172.20.2.0/25 and 172.20.3.0/25, respectively. The engineer issues a show ip route connected command on the Layer 3 switch, listing the connected routes. Which of the following answers lists a piece of information that should be in at least one of the routes?   A. Interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0.3 B. Next-hop router 172.20.2.1 C. Interface VLAN 2 D. Mask 255.255.255.0   Correct Answer: C   Question 4 An engineer has successfully configured a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for VLANs 2 and 3. Hosts in the subnets using VLANs 2 and 3 can ping each other with the Layer 3 switch routing the packets. The next week, the network engineer receives a call that those same users can no longer ping each other. If the problem is with the Layer 3 switching function, which of the following could have caused the problem?   A. Six -- or more -- out of 10 working VLAN 2 access ports failing due to physical problems B. A shutdown command issued from interface VLAN 4 configuration mode C. VLAN Trunking Protocol on the switch removing VLAN 3 from the switch's VLAN list D. A shutdown command issued from VLAN 2 configuration mode E. Both C and D F. Both B and D   Correct Answer: E   Question 5  A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches, SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1, G0/2 and G0/3 in the channel. Which of the following are true about SW1's configuration to make the channel be able to route IPv4 packets correctly?   A. The ip address command must be on the port-channel 1 interface. B. The ip address command must be on interface G0/1 -- lowest numbered port. C. The port-channel 1 interface must be configured with the no switchport command. D. Interface G0/1 must be configured with the routedport command. E. Both B and D F. Both A and C   Correct Answer: F   Question 6 A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches, SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1 and G0/2 in the channel. However, only interface G0/1 is bundled into the channel and working. Think about the configuration settings on port G0/2 that could have existed before adding G0/2 to the EtherChannel. Which answers identify a setting that could prevent IOS from adding G0/2 to the Layer 3 EtherChannel?   A. A different STP cost (spanning-tree cost value) B. A different speed (speed value) C. A default setting for switchport (switchport) D. A different access VLAN (switchport access vlan vlan-id) E. Both A and C F. Both B and C   Correct Answer: F   Question 7 Imagine that you have configured the enable secret command, followed by the enable password command, from the console. You log out of the switch and log back in at the console. Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode?   A. enable password B. enable secret C. Neither D. The password command, if it's configured Correct Answer: B   Question 8  Some Cisco IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password instead of storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other?   A. Using hashes is preferred because encrypted Cisco IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. B. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. C. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. D. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes.   Correct Answer: A   Question 9 A network engineer issues a show running-config command and sees only one line of output that mentions the enable secret command, as follows: enable secret 5 $1$ZGMA$e8cmvkz4UjiJhVp7.maLE1 Which of the following is true about users of this router?   A. A user must type $1$ZGMA$e8cmvkz4UjiJhVp7.maLE1 to reach enable mode. B. The router will hash the clear-text password that the user types to compare to the hashed password. C. A no service password-encryption configuration command would decrypt this password. D. The router will decrypt the password in the configuration to compare to the clear-text password typed by the user.   Correct Answer: B   Question 10 A single-line access control list (ACL) has been added to a router configuration using the command ip access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255. The configuration also includes the access-class 1 in command in virtual terminal configuration mode. Which answer accurately describes how the router uses ACL 1?   A. Hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23 alone can telnet into the router. B. Command-line interface users cannot telnet from the router to hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23 alone. C. Hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23 alone can log in but cannot reach enable mode of the router. D. The router will only forward packets with source addresses in subnet 172.16.4.0/23.   Correct Answer: A     Conclusion Cisco Certified Network Associate (200-301 CCNA) dumps SPOTO provides is helpful to clearly know about the exam without doubt. 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