Premium PMI-CAPM Exam Sample and Exam Simulations, Certified Associate in Project Management

Question #1

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A. Analogous

B. Parametric

C. Bottom-up

D. Top-down

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #2

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A. Scope changes B

C. Risk analysis

D. Quality audits

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #3

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

A. Organizational standard processes

B. Marketplace conditions

C. Historical information

D. Templates

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #4

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Executing

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #5

Organizations perceive risks as:

A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives

B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives

C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives

D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #6

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A. Functional manager

B. Project manager

C. Program manager

D. Project management office

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #7

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

A. The customer and functional managers

B. The risk owners and stakeholders

C. The sponsors and stakeholders

D. The project management team

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #8

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A. Project stakeholders

B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C. Project manager and project team

D. Project manager and project sponsor

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #9

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A. Schedule management plan B

C. Quality management plan

D. Resource management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #10

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A. Negotiating the contract

B. Authorizing contractor work

C. Developing the statement of work

D. Establishing evaluation criteria

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #11

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

A. project charter

B. stakeholder register

C. project scope statement

D. requirements traceability matrix

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #12

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A. resource calendar

B. activity list

C. risk management plan

D. organizational process assets

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #13

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables

B. accuracy of the work deliverables

C. formalizing approval of the scope statement

D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #14

What is the total float of the critical path?

A. Can be any number

B. Zero or positive

C. Zero or negative

D. Depends on the calendar

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #15

Portfolio Management is management of:

A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects

B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling

C. all projects undertaken by a company

D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #16

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews

B. Identify quality project standards

C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards

D. Complete the quality control checklist

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #17

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A. Utilize the change control process

C. Leave the defect in and work around it

D. Fast-track the remaining development

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #18

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A. Scope audits

B. Scope reviews

C. Quality audits

D. Control chart

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #19

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

A. Schedule

B. Checklist

C. Assumption

D. Cost-Benefit

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #20

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Project Management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #21

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

A. Templates, forms, and standards

B. Change requests

C. Product analysis

D. Project assumptions

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #22

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Organizational breakdown structure

C. Resource breakdown structure

D. Bill of materials

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #23

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

A. Product

B. Cost-benefit

C. Stakeholder

D. Research

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #24

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A. Activity list

B. Project plan

C. Activity duration estimates

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #25

When is a project finished?

A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C. When the project objectives have been met

D. After resources have been released

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #26

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Develop Project Charter

C. Direct and Manage Project Execution

D. Collect Requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #27

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #28

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

A. Expert judgment

B. Project management methodology

C. Project management information system (PMIS)

D. Project selection methods

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #29

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chart

B. Reporting flow diagram

C. Project organization chart D

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #30

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

A. Scope plan

B. Product scope

C. Scope management plan

D. Scope baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #31

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A. Sole-sum

B. Win-lose

C. Lose-win

D. Partial-sum

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #32

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A. Finish-to-start planning

B. Rolling wave planning

C. Short term planning

D. Dependency determination

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #33

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A. Critical path method

B. Variance analysis

C. Schedule compression

D. Schedule comparison bar charts

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #34

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them

B. Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes

C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes

D. Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #35

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

A. Bottom-up

B. Three-point

C. Parametric

D. Analogous

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #36

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A. Control Schedule

B. Define Activities

C. Develop Schedule

D. Estimate Activity Resources

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #37

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases

B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases

C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #38

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Plan Risk Responses

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #39

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A. To the project management plan

B. To the risk register

C. In the scope verification processes

D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #40

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

A. Resource plan

B. Project management plan

C. Cost control plan

D. Expected monetary value plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #41

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A. Customer request

B. Market demand

C. Technological advance

D. Strategic opportunity

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #42

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #43

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A. Decomposition

B. Benchmarking

C. Inspection

D. Checklist analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #44

To which process is work performance information an input?

A. Administer Procurements

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Create WBS

D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #45

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A. Procurement management plan

B. Evaluation criteria C

D. Procurement statement of work

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #46

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Control Costs

B. Determine Budget

C. Estimate Costs

D. Estimate Activity Resources

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #47

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A. The Delphi technique

B. Nominal group technique

C. Affinity diagram

D. Brainstorming

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #48

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A. Final phase of the project

B. Start of the project

C. End of the project

D. Midpoint of the project

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #49

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #50

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A. When the project uses capital expenditures

B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #51

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A. Scope baseline

B. Project scope statement

C. Organizational process assets

D. Requirements traceability matrix

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #52

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Develop Project Management Plan

C. Close Project

D. Develop Project Charter

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #53

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Estimate Costs B

C. Control Costs

D. Determine Budget

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #54

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders

B. Conduct risk management activities for a project

C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project

D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #55

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A. One

B. Five

C. Six

D. Seven

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #56

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

A. US$158,700

B. US$172,500

C. US$187,500

D. US$245,600

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #57

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A. Control chart

B. Earned value

C. Variance

D. Trend

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #58

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #59

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan

C. Developing and maintaining the plan

D. Execution of deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #60

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle? A. Pareto

B. Ishikawa

C. Shewhart-Deming

D. Delphi

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #61

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B. Central coordination of communication management across projects

C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives

D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #62

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A. Cost-benefit analysis

B. Variance analysis

C. Reserve analysis

D. Stakeholder analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #63

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A. BAC

B. EAC

C. ETC

D. WBS

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #64

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A. Plan contracting

B. Requesting seller responses

C. Selecting seller's

D. Planning purchase and acquisition

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #65

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A. Control

B. Bar

C. Flow

D. Pareto

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #66

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A. Teaming agreements

B. Expert judgment

C. Bidder conferences

D. Contract types

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #67

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A. Organizational chart B

C. Organizational structure

D. Organizational behavior

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #68

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B. Work performance information

C. Work package

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #69

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A. Project document updates

B. Project scope statement changes

C. Variance analysis

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #70

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A. Project calendar

B. Communications management plan

C. Organizational process assets updates

D. Project document updates

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #71

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A. Team meetings

B. Subcontracting teams

C. Virtual teams

D. Teamwork

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #72

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A. Sequence Activities

B. Estimate Activity Resources

C. Develop Schedule

D. Control Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #73

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A. Approved change requests

B. Approved contract documentation

C. Work performance information

D. Rejected change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #74

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A. Cost of changes B

C. Risk

D. Uncertainty

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #75

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A. Project Scope Management

B. Project Time Management

C. Project Communications Management

D. Project Quality Management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #76

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A. Conduct Procurements

B. Close Procurements

C. Administer Procurements,

D. Plan Procurements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #77

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Monitor and Control Risk

C. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. Plan Risk Responses

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #78

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A. Cost-reimbursable

B. Time and material

C. Fixed price or lump-sum

D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #79

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A. Expert judgment

B. Risk registry

C. Risk response planning

D. Interviewing

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #80

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A. WBS directory

B. Activity list

C. WBS

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #81

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A. Control Costs

B. Plan Quality

C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Determine Budget

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #82

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

A. Perform Quality Control B

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Plan Quality

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #83

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A. EV less AC

B. AC less PV

C. EV less PV

D. AC less EV

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #84

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chart

B. Flowchart

C. Run chart

D. Pareto chart

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #85

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A. Risk assessment analysis

B. Make or buy analysis

C. Contract value analysis

D. Cost impact analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #86

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A. Inspection

B. Variance analysis

C. Expert judgment

D. Decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #87

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A. Project Time Management

B. Project Cost Management

C. Project Scope Management

D. Project Human Resource Management

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #88

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A. Expert judgment

B. Project management methodology

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Status review meetings

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #89

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Plan Risk Management

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #90

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A. Acquire Project Team B

C. Manage Project Execution

D. Develop Project Charter

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #91

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A. Probability and impact matrix

B. Contingency analysis report

C. Risk urgency assessment

D. Rolling wave plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #92

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A. Configuration Identification

B. Configuration Status Accounting

C. Configuration Verification and Audit

D. Configuration Quality Assurance

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #93

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C. Define Scope

D. Report Performance

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #94

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A. Develop Schedule

B. Sequence Activities

C. Create WBS

D. Applying leads and lags

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #95

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A. Purchase requisition

B. Purchase order

C. Verbal agreement

D. Request for quote

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #96

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A. Resource attributes

B. Resource types

C. Resource categories

D. Resource breakdown structures (RBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #97

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert judgment B

C. Vendor bid analysis

D. Reserve analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #98

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A. state the guiding principles of the organization

B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches

C. state what is out of scope

D. outline the results of the Delphi technique

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #99

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A. Project

B. Functional

C. Program

D. Portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #100

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A. organization charts

B. ground rules

C. organizational theory,

D. conflict management

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #101

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A. Control Schedule

B. Quality Control

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #102

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A. updates

B. defect repairs

C. preventive actions

D. corrective actions

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #103

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A. Project life cycle

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. Enterprise environmental factors

D. Project initiation

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #104

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A. risk data quality assessment

B. variance and trend analysis

C. data gathering and representation techniques

D. risk audits

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #105

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

A. enterprise environmental factors

C. project management plan,

D. project funding requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #106

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A. Define Activities

B. Estimate Activity Durations

C. Estimate Activity Resources

D. Sequence Activities

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #107

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A. Plan Quality

B. Perform Quality Control

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #108

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A. in line with a measured degree of conformity

B. out of the hands of the customer

C. in a specified range of acceptable results

D. out of the process

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #109

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A. quality management plan

B. project management plan

C. communications management plan

D. schedule management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #110

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects

B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects

C. linked to specific phases or subprojects

D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #111

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

A. US$S000

B. US$9500

C. US$10,000

D. US$12,500

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #112

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A. Resource leveling and fast tracking

B. Fast tracking and crashing

C. Crashing and applying leads and lags

D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #113

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion? A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Quality Control

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Monitor and Control Risks

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #114

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A. Responsible organization

B. Change requests

C. Validated deliverables

D. Organizational process assets

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #115

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

A. Limited

B. Low to moderate

C. Moderate to high

D. High to almost total

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #116

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A. Influence diagrams

B. Brainstorming

C. Assumption analysis

D. SWOT analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #117

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A. corrective action

B. preventive action

C. non-conformance report,

D. defect repair

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #118

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

A. Product scope description

B. Procurement statement of work

C. Project schedule D

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #119

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D. Market demand and/or legal requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #120

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

A. Planning

B. Closing

C. Executing

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #121

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication: A. requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B. methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models

C. requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods

D. management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #122

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A. Scope baseline

B. Organizational process assets

C. Project schedule

D. Resource calendars

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #123

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A. Compromising

B. Collaborating

C. Smoothing

D. Problem Solving

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #124

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

A. quality audits

B. process analysis

C. benchmarking

D. inspection

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #125

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A. Arrow Diagram

B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM)

C. Activity-On-Node (AON)

D. schedule network diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #126

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Close Project or Phase

D. Monitor and Control Project Work

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #127

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A. Transfer

B. Share

C. Avoid

D. Accept

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #128

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

A. Teaming

B. Collective bargaining

C. Sharing

D. Working

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #129

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A. Determine Budget

B. Baseline Budget

C. Control Costs

D. Estimate Costs

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #130

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A. scope creep

B. a change request

C. work performance information

D. deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #131

The definition of operations is a/an:

A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service

B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area

D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #132

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #133

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A. Analogous

B. Parametric C

D. What-if scenario analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #134

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A. Executing

B. Initiating,

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Planning

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #135

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #136

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A. Stakeholder management strategy

B. Communication methods

C. Issue log

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #137

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A. Three-point estimates

B. Resource leveling

C. Precedence diagramming method

D. Bottom-up estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #138

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A. stakeholder management strategy

B. communications management plan,

C. stakeholder register,

D. performance report

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #139

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A. Vendor risk assessment diagram

B. Risk register

C. Requirements traceability matrix

D. Area of responsibility summary

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #140

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A. expert judgment

B. rolling wave planning

C. work performance information

D. specification

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #141

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area C

D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #142

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

A. Procurement statement of work

B. Resource calendars

C. Procurement document

D. Independent estimates

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #143

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing

C. Initiating

D. Planning

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #144

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A. Matrix diagram

B. Histogram

C. Control chart

D. Flowchart

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #145

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

A. Fixed Fee

B. Free Float

C. Fixed Finish

D. Finish-to-Finish

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #146

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D. Ce = (C0 + C,,, + 4Cp) / 6

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #147

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A. Probability

B. Quantitative

C. Qualitative

D. Sensitivity

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #148

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

A. Authority

B. Role

C. Competency

D. Responsibility

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #149

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A. Preventive action

B. Risk management C

D. Defect repair

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #150

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Historical information,

C. Organizational process assets

D. Corporate knowledge base

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #151

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B. Report Performance

C. Distribute Information

D. Plan Communications

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #152

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A. Vendor bid analysis

B. Three-point estimates

C. Parametric estimating

D. Reserve analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #153

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A. Project document updates

B. Organizational process assets updates

C. Change requests

D. Deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #154

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Closing

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #155

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

A. establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team

B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented

C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline

D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #156

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A. Project Plan

B. Responsibility Matrix

C. Issue Log

D. Scope Document

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #157

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A. Project sponsor

B. Project manager C

D. Person who is most familiar with the task

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #158

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A. Risk management plan

B. Risk register

C. Change requests

D. Risk response plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #159

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A. Cyclic

B. Progressive

C. Repetitive

D. Iterative

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #160

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C. Requirements management plan

D. Requirements documentation

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #161

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

A. Cost-reimbursable contracts

B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C. Fixed-price contracts

D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #162

Types of internal failure costs include:

A. inspections

B. equipment and training

C. lost business

D. reworking and scrapping

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #163

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

A. part-time

B. full-time

C. occasional

D. unlimited

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #164

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A. Activity sequencing

B. Resource leveling

C. Lead and lag adjusting

D. Crashing

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #165

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A. Legal

B. Discretionary C

D. Resource

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #166

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Plan Quality

D. Report Performance

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #167

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

A. Develop Human Resource Plan

B. Manage Project Team

C. Develop Project Team

D. Acquire Project Team

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #168

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Verify Scope

C. Control Scope

D. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #169

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. 0

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #170

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A. Three weeks

B. Four weeks

C. Five weeks

D. Six weeks

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #171

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality metrics

B. Less rework

C. Quality control measurements

D. Benchmarking

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #172

What is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan

B. External feedback

C. Performance reports

D. Co-location

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #173

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A. Cause and effect diagram B

C. Pareto chart

D. Histogram

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #174

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A. -8000

B. -2000

C. 2000

D. 8000

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #175

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A. Ishikawa

B. Milestone

C. Influence

D. Decision tree

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #176

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A. Start-to-start (SS)

B. Start-to-finish (SF)

C. Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D. Finish-to-start (FS)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #177

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A. quality plan

B. schedule network

C. management document update

D. scope statement

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #178

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles

B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle

C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle

D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #179

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A. Contract plan

B. Procurement plan

C. Closure process

D. Procurement audits

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #180

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A. Team performance assessment

B. Roles and responsibilities

C. Staffing management plan

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #181

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizations B

C. Work performance measurements

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #182

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

A. Internal failure costs

B. Prevention costs

C. Appraisal costs

D. External failure costs

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #183

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A. cause and effect diagram

B. control chart

C. flowchart

D. histogram

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #184

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B. The Standard for Program Management

C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK?)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #185

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

A. Exploit

B. Share

C. Enhance

D. Transfer

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #186

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A. Changing project specifications continuously

B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #187

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

A. There is a cost underrun

B. There is a cost overrun

C. The project may not meet the deadline

D. The project is 20 days behind schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #188

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems

B. Constrained by limited resources

C. Repetitiveness

D. Uniqueness

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #189

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. Cost right at the estimated value B

C. Cost right at the actual value

D. Cost over the estimated value

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #190

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A. Change requests

B. Variance analysis

C. Accepted deliverables

D. Requirements documentation

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #191

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A. Conduct Procurements

B. Plan Procurements

C. Administer Procurements

D. Close Procurements

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #192

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Brainstorming

B. Strategies for opportunities

C. Decision tree analysis

D. Risk data quality assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #193

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A. Functional

B. Projectized

C. Matrix

D. Balanced

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #194

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A. Executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Planning

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #195

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A. Plan Communications

B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C. Stakeholder Analysis

D. Identify Stakeholders

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #196

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%

B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%

C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%

D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #197

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials B

C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #198

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion

B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget

C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay

D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #199

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A. Applying calendars

B. Resource leveling

C. Resource planning

D. Resource conflict management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #200

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor

B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service

C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications

D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #201

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

A. Performance report

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. Requested changes

D. Project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #202

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis

C. Project records

D. Performance reviews

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #203

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A. Control Scope

B. Collect Requirements

C. Create WBS

D. Define Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #204

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities? A. Mitigate

B. Transfer

C. Exploit

D. Avoid

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #205

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #206

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager

B. Constantly evolving

C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #207

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge

C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment

D. The product is needed in 250 days

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #208

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A. Activity resource requirements

B. Published estimating data

C. Resource calendars

D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #209

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A. 0

B. 0

C. 1

D. 1

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #210

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Stays the same

D. Has no bearing

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #211

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI? A. EV

B. SPI

C. PV

D. ETC

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #212

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Close Project or Phase

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #213

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A. Ishikawa diagram

B. Control chart

C. Run chart

D. Pareto chart

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #214

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A. Positive

B. Zero

C. Negative

D. Greater than one

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #215

What is project management?

A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #216

Resource calendars are included in the:

A. staffing management plan

B. work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. project communications plan

D. project charter

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #217

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A. stakeholder register

B. project management plan

C. project scope statement

D. requirements management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #218

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype

C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance

D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #219

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #220

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A. Work performance information

B. Project management plan

C. Business case

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #221

The diagram below is an example of a:

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B. Project team

C. SWOT Analysis

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #222

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A. Project sponsor

B. Project manager C

D. Project management office (PMO)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #223

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A. Create WBS

B. complete project work

C. calculate costs

D. Develop Project Management Plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #224

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A. dictionary

B. chart

C. report

D. register

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #225

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A. Keep satisfied

B. Keep informed

C. Manage closely

D. Monitor

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #226

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

A. $800

B. $1000

C. $1250

D. $1800

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #227

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A. Project manager

B. External stakeholders

C. Internal stakeholders

D. Project team

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #228

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A. planned

B. conceived

C. chartered

D. executed

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #229

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #230

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness B

C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #231

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A. Decode

B. Encode

C. Medium

D. Noise

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #232

During project selection, which factor is most important?

A. Types of constraints

B. Internal business needs

C. Budget

D. Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #233

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A. organizational process assets

B. resource calendar

C. human resource plan

D. Develop Project Team process

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #234

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Project scope statement

C. WBS dictionary

D. Work performance measurements

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #235

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A. Acceptance of deliverables

B. Change requests

C. Project management plan updates

D. Benchmarking

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #236

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Performance reports

B. Project charter

C. Outputs from planning processes

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #237

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A. Two

B. Four

C. Five

D. Twelve

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #238

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A. Planning B

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #239

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A. Plan Quality

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Perform Quality Control

D. Total Quality Management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #240

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #241

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A. Slack

B. Float

C. Lag

D. Lead

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #242

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A. requirements documentation

B. project scope statement

C. project management plan

D. work performance measurements

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #243

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing D

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #244

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A. Project management plan

B. Activity resource requirements

C. Resource calendar

D. Project staff assignments

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #245

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A. Work performance reports

B. Assumptions logs

C. Network diagrams

D. Academic studies

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #246

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project? A. Scope baseline

B. Scope management plan

C. Change management plan

D. Cost baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #247

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A. Variance Analysis

B. Define Scope

C. Verify Scope

D. Control Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #248

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A. work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. schedule target

C. performance measurement baseline (PMB)

D. earned value baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #249

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A. event

B. response,

C. perception

D. impact

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #250

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A. Variance analysis

B. Three-point estimating

C. Bottom-up estimating

D. Historical relationships

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #251

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A. assumption log

B. quality checklist

C. risk register

D. contract type

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #252

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A. scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy

B. working relationships among various stakeholders and team members

C. application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D. work to be completed next

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #253

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is: A. facilitated workshops.

B. observations

C. questionnaires and surveys

D. group creativity techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #254

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A. manager

B. success

C. deadline

D. scope

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #255

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A. Networking

B. Training

C. Negotiation

D. Issue log

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #256

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

A. Pareto charts

B. quality metrics

C. change requests,

D. Ishikawa diagrams

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #257

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #258

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A. requirements documentation

B. scope baseline

C. project charter

D. validated deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #259

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Control Costs

B. Determine Budget

C. Estimate Costs

D. Control Budget

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #260

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities? A. Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B. Precedence diagramming

C. Project schedule network diagramming

D. Mathematical analysis diagramming

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #261

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A. cost management plan

B. risk management plan,

C. activity list,

D. risk register

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #262

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

A. minus planned value [EV - PV]

B. minus actual cost [EV - AC]

C. divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D. divided by actual cost [EV/AC]

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #263

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is: A. Estimate Activity Resources.

B. Estimate Activity Durations,

C. Develop Schedule

D. Control Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #264

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A. Share

B. Accept

C. Mitigate

D. Transfer

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #265

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A. risk taking and risk avoidance

B. known risk and unknown risk

C. identified risk and analyzed risk

D. varying degrees of risk

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #266

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A. Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs

B. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources

C. Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources

D. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #267

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A. a control chart

B. baseline

C. Create WBS

D. decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #268

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B. Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C. Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D. Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #269

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A. Estimate at completion

B. Cost performance

C. Schedule performance

D. To-complete performance

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #270

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is: A. prototypes.

B. expert judgment

C. alternatives identification

D. product analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #271

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A. highlight the need for root cause analysis

B. share the process documentation among stakeholders

C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities

D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #272

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A. Communications management plan

B. Human resource plan

C. Quality management plan

D. Procurement management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #273

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A. Acquisition

B. Negotiation

C. Virtual team

D. Pre-assignment

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #274

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment

B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default

C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis

D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #275

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A. Configuration management plan

B. Scope baseline

C. Requirements management plan

D. Schedule baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #276

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)

D. Time and Material Contract (T&M)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #277

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is: A. under budget and behind schedule.

B. over budget and ahead of schedule

C. on schedule

D. complete; all planned values have been earned

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #278

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B. Monitor and Control Risks

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Report Performance

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #279

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A. Technical performance measurement

B. Cost performance baseline

C. Benchmarking

D. Cost of quality

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #280

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A. Sensitivity analysis

B. Three-point estimate

C. Modeling and simulation

D. Expected monetary value analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #281

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A. Accepted deliverables

B. Organizational process assets updates

C. Managing stakeholder expectations

D. Performance reports

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #282

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit

B. Develop a risk register for risk planning

C. Evaluate each risk's importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #283

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan

B. Project charter

C. Project management plan

D. Service level agreement

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #284

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases

B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases

D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #285

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process? A. Document analysis

B. Observations

C. Product analysis

D. Expert judgment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #286

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A. Communication models

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Organizational communications,

D. Organizational cultures and styles

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #287

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods

C. Earned value management

D. Analytical techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #288

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A. Control Scope

B. Define Scope

C. Plan Scope Management

D. Collect Requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #289

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #290

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A. Ground rules

B. Expert judgment

C. Team-building activities

D. Interpersonal skills

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #291

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A. A risk urgency assessment

B. The scope baseline

C. Work performance information

D. Procurement audits

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #292

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them? A. Requirements documentation

B. Requirements traceability matrix

C. Project management plan updates

D. Project documents updates

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #293

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

A. Cost management plan

B. Work performance information

C. Quality management plan

D. Work breakdown structure

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #294

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A. External

B. Internal

C. Mandatory

D. Discretionary

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #295

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A. Project document updates

B. Activity list

C. Activity attributes

D. Project calendars

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #296

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

A. The project management plan

B. The stakeholder register

C. Procurement documents

D. Stakeholder analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #297

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Closing D

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #298

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

A. Force/direct

B. Withdraw/avoid

C. Compromise/reconcile

D. Collaborate/problem solve

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #299

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A. Decomposition

B. Modeling techniques

C. Resource optimization

D. Meetings

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #300

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A. Plan Communications

B. Performance reporting

C. Project status reports

D. Distribute Information

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #301

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Identify Risks

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #302

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives

B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place

C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events

D. Removal of project risk

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #303

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A. Collect Requirements

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. Develop Project Management Plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

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