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PMI-CAPM Practice Exam and Exam Preparation Resources, Certified Associate in Project Management | SPOTO

Elevate your PMI-CAPM certification journey with our comprehensive PMI-CAPM Practice Exam and Exam Preparation Resources. Designed to cater to the diverse needs of aspiring project management professionals, our offerings provide a robust foundation for exam success. Immerse yourself in a realistic testing environment with our mock exams, meticulously crafted to mirror the actual certification exam. Gain invaluable practice with exam questions and answers that cover the breadth of the CAPM syllabus, ensuring you're well-equipped to tackle any challenge. Our exam simulator replicates the authentic exam experience, helping you build confidence and familiarity with the testing format. Leverage our online exam questions and real exam questions to identify your strengths and weaknesses, allowing you to focus your studies effectively. Simulation exams provide a comprehensive assessment of your readiness, while exam sample questions challenge your understanding of key concepts. Our exam preparation resources are expertly curated to ensure you have access to the most up-to-date and relevant materials, empowering you to approach the PMI-CAPM certification exam with confidence.
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Question #1
Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 1,000
D. 1,200
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #2
Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #3
Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #4
When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:
A. lead
B. lag
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #5
What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?
A. 0
B. 0
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #6
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #7
Project management processes ensure the:
A. alignment with organizational strategy
B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #8
Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #9
An input to the Control Quality process is:
A. Activity attributes
B. Quality control measurements
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #10
A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
A. Require communication technology that is not readily available
B. Create difficulties when including people with disabilities
C. Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts
D. Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #11
Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #12
A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
A. contingent risk
B. residual risk
C. potential risk
D. secondary risk
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #13
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
A. change control tools
B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #14
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project. Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?
A. 0
B. 0
C. 1
D. 1
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #15
Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?
A. Schedule network analysis
B. Reserve analysis
C. Alternative analysis
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #16
A project’s purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #17
A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:
A. risk management plan
B. human resource management plan
C. scope management plan
D. procurement management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #18
A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
A. cultural differences of team members
B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #19
Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
A. buyers
B. sellers
C. business partners
D. product users
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #20
Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:
A. influencing
B. leadership
C. motivation
D. coaching
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #21
Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Accepted deliverables
C. Project management plan updates
D. Organizational process assets
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #22
Which term describes an assessment of correctness?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Grade
D. Quality
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #23
The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Plan Human Resource Management
C. Manage Project Team
D. Develop Project Team
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #24
At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #25
Success is measured by benefits realization for a:
A. strategic plan
B. project
C. portfolio
D. program
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #26
Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?
A. Plan Cost Management
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Plan Stakeholder Management
D. Plan Schedule Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #27
Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
A. performance measurement criteria
B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #28
Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?
A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #29
A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?
A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Managed
D. Balanced
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #30
Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:
A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product
B. Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed
C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project
D. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #31
For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:
A. Monitor the stakeholder
B. Manage the stakeholder closely
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied
D. Keep the stakeholder informed
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #32
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #33
The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:
A. work package
B. deliverable
C. milestone
D. activity
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #34
Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #35
Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan
D. the stakeholder register
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #36
The following is a network diagram for a project. What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-C-F-G-I
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-ID
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #37
The following is a network diagram for a project. How many possible paths are identified for this project?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #38
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:
A. Close Procurements
B. Control Procurements
C. Plan Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #39
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #40
Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #41
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #42
In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
A. Within a work package
B. In each phase of the project
C. To estimate schedule constraints
D. To estimate resource allocations
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #43
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:
A. Communication models
B. Stakeholder participation
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #44
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #45
The following is a network diagram for a project. What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-D-G
B. A-B-E-G
C. A-C-F-GD
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #46
Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #47
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?
A. Information management systems
B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #48
High-level project risks are included in which document?
A. Business case
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Project charter
D. Risk register
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #49
Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?
A. Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors
B. Historical information and change control procedures
C. Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix
D. Resource availability and organizational culture and structure
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #50
Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?
A. Internal
B. External
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #51
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
A. Activity network diagrams
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #52
Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements
B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements
C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #53
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?
A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #54
The stakeholder register is an output of:
A. Identify Stakeholders
B. Plan Stakeholder Management
C. Control Stakeholder Engagement
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #55
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. change requests
B. team performance assessments
C. project staff assignments
D. project documents updates
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #56
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?
A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #57
An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Make-or-buy decisions
B. Activity cost estimates
C. Seller proposals
D. Procurement documents
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #58
Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?
A. Procurement audit
B. Lessons learned
C. Performance reporting
D. Payment requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #59
Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Executing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #60
The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #61
Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Collect Requirements
C. Sequence Activities
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #62
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Scope
D. Control Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #63
When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #64
Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?
A. Cost management plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Communications management plan
D. Risk management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #65
Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. A work breakdown structure
C. The project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #66
Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?
A. Histograms
B. Scatter diagrams
C. Flowcharts
D. Checksheets
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #67
The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #68
Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Plan Cost Management
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #69
The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:
A. Plan Procurements
B. Control Procurements
C. Close Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #70
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #71
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
A. Validate Scope
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Control Quality
D. Verify Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #72
What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #73
Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #74
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result
C. Describe the project in great detail
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #75
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
A. Staffing level is highest at the start
B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #76
An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:
A. structure
B. process asset
C. matrix
D. breakdown structure
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #77
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?
A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #78
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #79
Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Bottom-up estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #80
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #81
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #82
Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?
A. Project management information system
B. Work performance information
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #83
What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #84
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #85
Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Team performance assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #86
Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #87
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #88
During which process group is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #89
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #90
What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
A. Scope changes
B. Resource limitations
C. Risk analysis
D. Quality audits
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #91
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #92
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #93
Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives
D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #94
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #95
Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?
A. The customer and functional managers
B. The risk owners and stakeholders
C. The sponsors and stakeholders
D. The project management team
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #96
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A. Market conditions and published commercial information
B. Company structure and market conditions
C. Commercial information and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market conditions
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #97
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #98
An input of the Control Schedule process is the:
A. resource calendar
B. activity list
C. risk management plan
D. organizational process assets
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #99
The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:
A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables
B. accuracy of the work deliverables
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #100
What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #101
Portfolio Management is management of:
A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects
B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling
C. all projects undertaken by a company
D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #102
Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?
A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews
B. Identify quality project standards
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards
D. Complete the quality control checklist
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #103
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect
C. Leave the defect in and work around it
D. Fast-track the remaining development
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #104
The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #105
Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #106
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #107
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #108
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #109
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?
A. Plan Communications
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Distribute Information
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #110
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #111
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #112
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #113
Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Project management information system (PMIS)
D. Project selection methods
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #114
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #115
What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
A. Sole-sum
B. Win-lose
C. Lose-win
D. Partial-sum
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #116
Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #117
Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:
A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them
C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes
D. Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #118
Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?
A. Bottom-up
B. Three-point
C. Parametric
D. Analogous
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #119
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?
A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
B.
D. Estimate Activity Resources
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #120
Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #121
A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:
A. To the project management plan
B. To the risk register
C. In the scope verification processes
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #122
Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #123
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #124
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Activity Resources
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #125
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #126
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #127
When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures
B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #128
Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #129
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #130
Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #131
If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
A. One
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #132
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #133
Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update
C. Project schedule network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #134
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #135
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #136
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #137
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?
A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #138
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000
A. 1
B. 0
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #139
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #140
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #141
Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #142
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #143
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #144
How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #145
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Decomposition
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #146
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #147
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #148
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #149
Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management software
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Reserve analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #150
A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:
A. state the guiding principles of the organization
B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches
C. state what is out of scope
D. outline the results of the Delphi technique
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #151
Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #152
One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:
A. organization charts
B. ground rules
C. organizational theory,
D. conflict management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #153
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
A. Control Schedule
B. Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #154
Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:
A. updates
B. defect repairs
C. preventive actions
D. corrective actions
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #155
In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. project management plan
D. project funding requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #156
The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?
A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #157
Quality metrics are an output of which process?
A. Plan Quality Management
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #158
The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?
A. Resource leveling and fast tracking
B. Fast tracking and crashing
C. Crashing and applying leads and lags
D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #159
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Parametric estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #160
Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?
A. Portfolio
B. Process
C. Project
D. Program
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #161
Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?
A. Limited
B. Low to moderate
C. Moderate to high
D. High to almost total
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #162
Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Brainstorming
C. Assumption analysis
D. SWOT analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #163
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:
A. corrective action
B. preventive action
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #164
Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?
A. Product scope description
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Project schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #165
In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project schedule
D. Resource calendars
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #166
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:
A. Arrow Diagram
B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM)
C. Activity-On-Node (AON)
D. schedule network diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #167
Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #168
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
A. scope creep
B. a change request
C. work performance information
D. deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #169
How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #170
Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates
B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates
C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates
D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #171
Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?
A. Stakeholder management strategy
B. Communication methods
C. Issue log
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #172
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
A. stakeholder management strategy
B. communications management plan,
C. stakeholder register,
D. performance report
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #173
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?
A. Vendor risk assessment diagram
B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #174
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #175
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #176
When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
A. Fixed Fee
B. Free Float
C. Fixed Finish
D. Finish-to-Finish
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #177
Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?
A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4
B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4
C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6
D. Ce = (C0 + C?, + 4Cp) /6
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #178
Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?
A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #179
When addressing roles and responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?
A. Authority
B. Role
C. Competency
D. Responsibility
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #180
Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action
B. Risk management
C. Corrective action
D. Defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #181
Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #182
Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?
A. Project Plan
B. Responsibility Matrix
C. Issue Log
D. Scope Document
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #183
Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Change requests
D. Risk response plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #184
Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?
A. Cyclic
B. Progressive
C. Repetitive
D. Iterative
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #185
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #186
Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
A. Cost-reimbursable contracts
B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
C. Fixed-price contracts
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #187
Types of internal failure costs include:
A. inspections
B. equipment and training
C. lost business
D. reworking and scrapping
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #188
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #189
Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Plan Quality
D. Report Performance
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #190
Co-location is a tool and technique of:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan
B. Manage Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Acquire Project Team
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #191
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #192
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #193
What is a tool to improve team performance?
A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-location
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #194
Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control charts
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #195
Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?
A. -8000
B. -2000
C. 2000
D. 8000
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #196
Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision tree
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #197
In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
A. Start-to-start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Finish-to-finish (FF)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #198
A required input for Create WBS is a project:
A. quality plan
B. schedule network
C. management document update
D. scope statement
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #199
Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?
A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles
B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle
C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle
D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #200
Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?
A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK?)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #201
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?
A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #202
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #203
Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #204
Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?
A. Change requests
B. Variance analysis
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #205
Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #206
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #207
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #208
Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #209
The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:
A. Plan Communications
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Stakeholder Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #210
Which is an output from Distribute Information?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #211
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased
B. The critical path will have positive total float
C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #212
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #213
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #214
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #215
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgmentD
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #216
An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
A. Activity resource requirements
B. Published estimating data
C. Resource calendars
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #217
Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #218
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #219
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #220
What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #221
Resource calendars are included in the:
A. staffing management plan
B. work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. project communications plan
D. project charter
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #222
An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
A. stakeholder register
B. project management plan
C. project scope statement
D. requirements management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #223
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #224
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
A. Create WBS
B. complete project work
C. calculate costs
D. Develop Project Management Plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #225
The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:
A. dictionary
B. chart
C. report
D. register
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #226
How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
A. Keep satisfied
B. Keep informed
C. Manage closely
D. Monitor
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #227
The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance will continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
A. $800
B. $1000
C. $1250
D. $1800
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #228
Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
A. Project manager
B. External stakeholders
C. Internal stakeholders
D. Project team
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #229
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #230
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #231
In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?
A. Decode
B. Encode
C. Medium
D. Noise
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #232
During project selection, which factor is most important?
A. Types of constraints
B. Internal business needs
C. Budget
D. Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #233
The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets
B. resource calendar
C. human resource plan
D. Develop Project Team process
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #234
Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #235
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Performance reports
B. Project charter
C. Outputs from planning processes
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #236
A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #237
The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Total Quality Management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #238
Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #239
The completion of the project scope is measured against the:
A. requirements documentation
B. project scope statement
C. project management plan
D. work performance measurements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #240
The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #241
Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?
A. Project management plan
B. Activity resource requirements
C. Resource calendar
D. Project staff assignments
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #242
Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?
A. Variance Analysis
B. Define Scope
C. Verify Scope
D. Control Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #243
Plan-do-check-act is also known as:
A. prevention over inspection
B. statistical sampling
C. management responsibility,
D. continuous improvement
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #244
The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:
A. operate separately
B. move together in batches,
C. overlap and interact
D. move in a sequence
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #245
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops
B. observations
C. questionnaires and surveys
D. group creativity techniques
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #246
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate
B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #247
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #248
Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?
A. Corrective action
B. Defect repair
C. Preventative action
D. Probable action
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #249
Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?
A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan
B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates
C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents
D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #250
In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
A. Schedule
B. Quality
C. Communications
D. Cost
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #251
Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #252
Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:
A. cost management plan
B. risk management plan,
C. activity list,
D. risk register
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #253
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. Project scope statement
B. Project charter
C. Project plan
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #254
After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #255
The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:
A. a control chart
B. baseline
C. Create WBS
D. decomposition
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #256
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?
A. Project
B. Scope
C. Contract
D. Program
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #257
While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?
A. Communications management plan
B. Human resource plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Procurement management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #258
Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?
A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment
B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default
C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis
D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #259
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
A. External
B. Lead
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #260
The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)
D. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #261
The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:
A. quality
B. value
C. technical performance
D. status
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #262
The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:
A. majority rule technique
B. nominal group technique
C. Delphi technique,
D. idea/mind mapping technique
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #263
Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?
A. Product analysis
B. Project charter
C. Scope baseline
D. Project scope statement
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #264
Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Managing stakeholder expectations
D. Performance reports
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #265
A Pareto chart is a specific type of:
A. control chart
B. histogram
C. cause-and-effect diagram
D. scatter diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #266
A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks before the planned date without changing the scope. Which of the following techniques may be applied to reevaluate the schedule?
A. What-if scenario analysis
B. Critical chain method
C. Schedule crashing
D. Resource leveling
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #267
An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:
A. deliverable
B. assumption
C. constraint
D. exclusion
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #268
Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and cost are:
A. Contingency reserves
B. Management reserves
C. Authorized budgets
D. Cost baselines
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #269
Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:
A. Minus actual cost [EV - AC]
B. Minus planned value [EV - PV]
D. Divided by planned value [EV/PV]
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #270
Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and templates are all tools and techniques for which of the following?
A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Develop Schedule
D. Sequence Activities
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #271
In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?
A. When the project charter is signed
B. When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project
C. When the project manager is appointed
D. When the necessary finance or funding is obtained
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #272
In which of the following types of organizations is resource availability moderate to high?
A. Weak matrix
B. Balanced matrix
C. Strong matrix
D. Projectized
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #273
In which process group is the scope first defined?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Controlling
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #274
On what is project baseline development established?
A. Approved product requirements
B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #275
One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:
A. planned, designed, and built in
B. planned, designed, and inspected in
C. built in, created, and reviewed
D. built in, created, and standardized
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #276
Outputs from constituent processes might be used as:
A. Inputs to other processes
B. Proof of process completion
C. Identification of project tasks
D. Indicators to eliminate project redundancies
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #277
Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:
A. decreased likelihood of conflicting interests between stakeholders
B. decreased likelihood of the projects progress being impeded
C. increased likelihood of project failure
D. increased likelihood of project success
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #278
Project Management Process Groups are linked by:
A. the outputs they produce
B. discrete or one-time events
C. the project management plan
D. common tools and techniques
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #279
Project management processes are:
A. Static; they must not change across different projects
B. Applied globally and across all industry groups
C. Discrete elements with well-defined interfaces
D. Project phases, applied as required in different projects
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #280
Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?
A. Project managers
B. Stakeholders
C. Functional managers
D. Sponsors
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #281
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysisD
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #282
Schedule milestones and a predefined budget are examples of:
A. Project constraints
B. Requirements documentation
C. Organizational process assets
D. Activity cost estimates
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #283
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Mandatory
D. Internal
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #284
The cost of nonconformance in a project includes:
A. testing
B. rework
C. inspections
D. training
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #285
The cost performance baseline is typically displayed in the form of:
A. An S-curve
B. A normal curve
C. A U-curve
D. A positive slope line
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #286
The Process Group that involves coordinating people and resources, as well as integrating and performing the activities of the project in accordance with the project management plan is known as:
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #287
The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product is known as:
A. Create WBS
B. Verify Scope
C. Collect Requirements
D. Define Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #288
The project charter is an input to which process?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #289
The project governance approach should be described in the:
A. change control plan
B. project scope
C. statement of work
D. project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #290
Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)? EV= $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200
A. 0
B. 1
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #291
Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
A. Develop preliminary project scope statement
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Develop project charter
D. Create WBS
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #292
What are the key components of the communication model?
A. Encode, message and feedback-message, medium, noise, and decode
B. Encode, messaging technology, medium, noise, and decode
C. Sender, message and feedback-message, medium, noise, and translate
D. Receiver, message and feedback-message, medium, noise, and decode
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #293
What is Project Portfolio Management?
A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub- projects
B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling
C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company
D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #294
What is the critical chain method?
A. A technique to calculate the theoretical early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates
B. A schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources
C. A schedule compression technique that analyzes cost and schedule trade-offs to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost
D. A technique to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #295
What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?
A. Work Packages
B. Activities
C. Schedules
D. Tasks
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #296
What is the minimum a project schedule must include?
A. Variance analysis
B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
C. A critical path diagram
D. Critical chain analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #297
What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?
A. Procurement documents
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #298
What process determines which risks might affect the project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #299
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #300
When a control chart is used to monitor performance of a process, which of the following will be set by the project manager and the appropriate stakeholders to reflect the point(s) at which corrective action will be taken to prevent exceeding the specification limits?
A. Upper and lower control limits
B. Upper and lower specification limits
C. Process mean
D. Data points
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #301
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?
A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #302
Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management information system (PMIS)
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Scheduled network analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B

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