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PMI-CAPM Exam Answers: Expert Solutions for Exam Success

The Project Management Institute's Certified Associate in Project Management (PMI-CAPM) certification sets the standard for project management expertise, and our high-quality practice tests and exam material are here to guide you towards success. Our mock exams provide a realistic preview of the actual exam environment, allowing you to familiarize yourself with exam questions and sharpen your skills. Dive into our comprehensive collection of exam questions and answers, meticulously crafted by industry experts to ensure relevance and accuracy. With our exam simulator, you can simulate timed exam conditions, refine your test-taking strategies, and enhance your confidence. Access online exam questions, including real exam scenarios and simulation exams, to reinforce your understanding and boost your performance on exam day. Prepare effectively with expert solutions designed for exam success. Elevate your exam practice and preparation with PMI-CAPM Exam Answers, your pathway to certification achievement.
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Question #1
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
A. 0
B. 0
C. 0
D. 1
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #2
Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?
A. Histograms
B. Scatter diagrams
C. Flowcharts
D. Checksheets
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #3
The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #4
Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Plan Cost Management
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #5
Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?
A. Coaching
B. Avoidance
C. Consensus
D. Influencing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #6
The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:
A. Plan Procurements
B. Control Procurements
C. Close Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #7
The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
A. Intuitive
B. Iterative
C. Measured
D. Monitored
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #8
The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #9
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?
A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #10
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #11
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
A. Validate Scope
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Control Quality
D. Verify Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #12
An output of Control Schedule is:
A. A project schedule network diagram
B. A schedule management plan
C. Schedule data
D. Schedule forecasts
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #13
What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #14
Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #15
Most experienced project managers know that:
A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK? Guide
B. there is no single way to manage a project
C. project management techniques are risk free
D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #16
What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #17
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result
C. Describe the project in great detail
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #18
Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #19
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #20
Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #21
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved change requests
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #22
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
A. Staffing level is highest at the start
B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #23
An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:
A. structure
B. process asset
C. matrix
D. breakdown structure
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #24
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?
A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #25
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #26
When is a Salience Model used?
A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #27
Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #28
Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Bottom-up estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #29
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #30
Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #31
Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #32
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?
A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes
B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion
C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants
D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #33
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #34
Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #35
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Critical path method
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Parametric estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #36
What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #37
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #38
Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Team performance assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #39
Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #40
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk category
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #41
Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #42
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #43
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #44
What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
A. Scope changes
B. Resource limitations
C. Risk analysis
D. Quality audits
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #45
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #46
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #47
Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives
D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #48
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #49
Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?
A. The customer and functional managers
B. The risk owners and stakeholders
C. The sponsors and stakeholders
D. The project management team
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #50
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #51
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #52
Which is an example of Administer Procurements?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #53
An input to the Create WBS process is a:
A. project charter
B. stakeholder register
C. project scope statement
D. requirements traceability matrix
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #54
An input of the Control Schedule process is the:
A. resource calendar
B. activity list
C. risk management plan
D. organizational process assets
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #55
The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:
A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables
B. accuracy of the work deliverables
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #56
What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #57
Portfolio Management is management of:
A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects
B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling
C. all projects undertaken by a company
D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #58
Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?
A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews
B. Identify quality project standards
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards
D. Complete the quality control checklist
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #59
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect
C. Leave the defect in and work around it
D. Fast-track the remaining development
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #60
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #61
Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #62
The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #63
Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #64
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #65
Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?
A. Product
B. Cost-benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #66
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #67
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #68
Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution
D. Collect Requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #69
Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #70
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?
A. Plan Communications
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Distribute Information
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #71
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #72
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events
D. Removal of project risk
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #73
Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Develop Project Management Plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #74
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #75
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?
A. -700
B. -200
C. 200
D. 500
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #76
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #77
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
A. Root cause analysis
B. Risk probability and impact assessment
C. Expert judgment
D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #78
Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Project management information system (PMIS)
D. Project selection methods
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #79
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #80
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #81
What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
A. Sole-sum
B. Win-lose
C. Lose-win
D. Partial-sum
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #82
What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #83
Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #84
Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:
A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them
B. Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes
C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes
D. Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #85
Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?
A. Bottom-up
B. Three-point
C. Parametric
D. Analogous
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #86
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?
A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #87
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?
A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #88
Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #89
A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:
A. To the project management plan
B. To the risk register
C. In the scope verification processes
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #90
A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?
A. Resource plan
B. Project management plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #91
An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #92
Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #93
To which process is work performance information an input?
A. Administer Procurements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Create WBS
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #94
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #95
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Activity Resources
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #96
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #97
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #98
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #99
When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures
B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #100
Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #101
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #102
Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #103
If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
A. One
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #104
The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?
A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #105
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #106
Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update
C. Project schedule network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #107
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #108
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #109
When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #110
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #111
The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide? should:
A. always be applied uniformly
B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #112
Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?
A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)
B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)
C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #113
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #114
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #115
A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordination of communication management across projects
C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #116
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #117
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #118
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller's
D. Planning purchase and acquisition
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #119
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?
A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #120
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000
A. 1
B. 0
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #121
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #122
What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Work performance information
C. Work package
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #123
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #124
Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communications management plan
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Project document updates
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #125
In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?
A. Team meetings
B. Subcontracting teams
C. Virtual teams
D. Teamwork
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #126
The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?
A. Sequence Activities
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #127
Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #128
Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?
A. Cost of changes
B. Stakeholder influences
C. Risk
D. Uncertainty
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #129
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #130
Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Administer Procurements,
D. Plan Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #131
In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Monitor and Control Risk
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Plan Risk Responses
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #132
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #133
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #134
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #135
Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
A. Control Costs
B. Plan Quality
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #136
Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Metrics
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Plan Quality
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #137
How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #138
Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #139
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?
A. Risk assessment analysis
B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #140
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Decomposition
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #141
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?
A. Project Time Management
B. Project Cost Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #142
Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #143
Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?
A. Monitor and Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #144
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #145
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #146
Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Status Accounting
C. Configuration Verification and Audit
D. Configuration Quality Assurance
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #147
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Define Scope
D. Report Performance
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #148
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #149
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #150
Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?
A. Cost risk simulation analysis
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Sensitivity analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #151
Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management software
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Reserve analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #152
A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:
A. state the guiding principles of the organization
B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches
C. state what is out of scope
D. outline the results of the Delphi technique
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #153
Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #154
One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:
A. organization charts
B. ground rules
C. organizational theory,
D. conflict management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #155
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
A. Control Schedule
B. Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #156
Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:
A. updates
B. defect repairs
C. preventive actions
D. corrective actions
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #157
Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?
A. Project life cycle
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Project initiation
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #158
A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:
A. risk data quality assessment
B. variance and trend analysis
C. data gathering and representation techniques
D. risk audits
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #159
In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. project management plan,
D. project funding requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #160
The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?
A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #161
Quality metrics are an output of which process?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #162
The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:
A. in line with a measured degree of conformity
B. out of the hands of the customer
C. in a specified range of acceptable results
D. out of the process
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #163
An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:
A. quality management plan
B. project management plan
C. communications management plan
D. schedule management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #164
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:
A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects
B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #165
A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?
A. US$S000
B. US$9500
C. US$10,000
D. US$12,500
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #166
The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?
A. Resource leveling and fast tracking
B. Fast tracking and crashing
C. Crashing and applying leads and lags
D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #167
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #168
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #169
When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:
A. training, testing, and warranty work
B. equipment, rework, and scrap
C. training, document processes, and inspections
D. inspections, rework, and warranty work
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #170
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Parametric estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #171
Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?
A. Portfolio
B. Process
C. Project
D. Program
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #172
Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?
A. Limited
B. Low to moderate
C. Moderate to high
D. High to almost total
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #173
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:
A. corrective action
B. preventive action
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #174
Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?
A. Product scope description
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Project schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #175
Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution
B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)
C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request
D. Market demand and/or legal requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #176
In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #177
Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:
A. requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods
B. methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models
C. requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods
D. management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #178
In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project schedule
D. Resource calendars
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #179
Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?
A. Compromising
B. Collaborating
C. Smoothing
D. Problem Solving
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #180
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:
A. Arrow Diagram
B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM)
C. Activity-On-Node (AON)
D. schedule network diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #181
Change request status updates are an output of which process?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #182
As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?
A. Communication management activities
B. Change requests
C. Configuration verification and audit
D. Work performance information
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #183
Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #184
The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
A. Transfer
B. Share
C. Avoid
D. Accept
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #185
Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
A. Teaming
B. Collective bargaining
C. Sharing
D. Working
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #186
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:
A. Determine Budget
B. Baseline Budget
C. Control Costs
D. Estimate Costs
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #187
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
A. scope creep
B. a change request
C. work performance information
D. deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #188
The definition of operations is a/an:
A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service
B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area
D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #189
How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #190
Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Three-point
D. What-if scenario analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #191
The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:
A. Executing
B. Initiating,
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #192
Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates
B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates
C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates
D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #193
Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?
A. Stakeholder management strategy
B. Communication methods
C. Issue log
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #194
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?
A. Three-point estimates
B. Resource leveling
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Bottom-up estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #195
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
A. stakeholder management strategy
B. communications management plan,
C. stakeholder register,
D. performance report
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #196
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?
A. Vendor risk assessment diagram
B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #197
The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:
A. expert judgment
B. rolling wave planning
C. work performance information
D. specification
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #198
What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business
B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area
C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives
D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #199
Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Resource calendars
C. Procurement document
D. Independent estimates
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #200
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #201
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #202
When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
A. Fixed Fee
B. Free Float
C. Fixed Finish
D. Finish-to-Finish
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #203
Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?
A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #204
When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?
A. Authority
B. Role
C. Competency
D. Responsibility
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #205
Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action
B. Risk management
C. Corrective action
D. Defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #206
The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Historical information,
C. Organizational process assets
D. Corporate knowledge base
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #207
Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?
A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
B. Report Performance
C. Distribute Information
D. Plan Communications
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #208
Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?
A. Vendor bid analysis
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Reserve analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #209
Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Project document updates
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Change requests
D. Deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #210
Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #211
The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:
A. establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team
B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented
C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline
D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #212
Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?
A. Project Plan
B. Responsibility Matrix
C. Issue Log
D. Scope Document
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #213
Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Person responsible for project scheduling
D. Person who is most familiar with the task
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #214
Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Change requests
D. Risk response plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #215
Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?
A. Cyclic
B. Progressive
C. Repetitive
D. Iterative
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #216
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #217
Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
A. Cost-reimbursable contracts
B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
C. Fixed-price contracts
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #218
Types of internal failure costs include:
A. inspections
B. equipment and training
C. lost business
D. reworking and scrapping
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #219
In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
A. part-time
B. full-time
C. occasional
D. unlimited
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #220
Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
A. Activity sequencing
B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
D. Crashing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #221
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #222
Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Plan Quality
D. Report Performance
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #223
Co-location is a tool and technique of:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan
B. Manage Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Acquire Project Team
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #224
During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Verify Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #225
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #226
A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?
A. Three weeks
B. Four weeks
C. Five weeks
D. Six weeks
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #227
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #228
What is a tool to improve team performance?
A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-location
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #229
Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control charts
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #230
Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?
A. -8000
B. -2000
C. 2000
D. 8000
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #231
Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision tree
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #232
In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
A. Start-to-start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Rnish-to-finish (FF)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #233
A required input for Create WBS is a project:
A. quality plan
B. schedule network
C. management document update
D. scope statement
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #234
Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?
A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles
B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle
C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle
D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #235
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?
A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #236
Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Project management plan
B. Change request status updates
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Work performance information
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #237
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
A. Team performance assessment
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #238
Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?
A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Work performance measurements
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #239
Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
A. Internal failure costs
B. Prevention costs
C. Appraisal costs
D. External failure costs
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #240
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
A. cause and effect diagram
B. control chart
C. flowchart
D. histogram
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #241
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?
A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #242
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #243
A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?
A. There is a cost underrun
B. There is a cost overrun
C. The project may not meet the deadline
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #244
Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #245
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. Cost right at the estimated value
B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #246
Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?
A. Change requests
B. Variance analysis
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #247
Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #248
Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for opportunities
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Risk data quality assessment
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #249
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #250
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #251
Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #252
The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:
A. Plan Communications
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Stakeholder Analysis
D. Identify Stakeholders
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #253
What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%
B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #254
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #255
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion
B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget
C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay
D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #256
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
A. Applying calendars
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource planning
D. Resource conflict management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #257
"Tailoring" is defined as the:
A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor
B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service
C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications
D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #258
Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #259
Which is an output from Distribute Information?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #260
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased
B. The critical path will have positive total float
C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #261
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #262
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #263
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #264
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #265
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment
D. The product is needed in 250 days
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #266
An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
A. Activity resource requirements
B. Published estimating data
C. Resource calendars
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #267
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?
A. 0
B. 0
C. 1
D. 1
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #268
Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #269
What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Has no bearing
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #270
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #271
Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #272
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #273
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
A. Define Activities
B. Create WBS
C. Define Scope
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #274
What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #275
Resource calendars are included in the:
A. staffing management plan
B. work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. project communications plan
D. project charter
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #276
Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?
A. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence
B. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence
C. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together
D. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #277
An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
A. stakeholder register
B. project management plan
C. project scope statement
D. requirements management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #278
Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype
B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor
C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance
D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #279
In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #280
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #281
The diagram below is an example of a:
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Project team
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #282
Who is responsible for initiating a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office (PMO)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #283
Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
A. Affinity
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Matrix
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #284
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
A. Create WBS
B. complete project work
C. calculate costs
D. Develop Project Management Plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #285
The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:
A. dictionary
B. chart
C. report
D. register
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #286
How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
A. Keep satisfied
B. Keep informed
C. Manage closely
D. Monitor
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #287
The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
A. $800
B. $1000
C. $1250
D. $1800
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #288
Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
A. Project manager
B. External stakeholders
C. Internal stakeholders
D. Project team
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #289
Risk exists the moment that a project is:
A. planned
B. conceived
C. chartered
D. executed
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #290
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #291
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #292
In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?
A. Decode
B. Encode
C. Medium
D. Noise
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #293
During project selection, which factor is most important?
A. Types of constraints
B. Internal business needs
C. Budget
D. Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #294
The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets
B. resource calendar
C. human resource plan
D. Develop Project Team process
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #295
Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #296
Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
A. Acceptance of deliverables
B. Change requests
C. Project management plan updates
D. Benchmarking
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #297
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Performance reports
B. Project charter
C. Outputs from planning processes
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #298
Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Five
D. Twelve
View answer
Correct Answer: B

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