2024 PMI-CAPM Exam Practice Questions & Answers, Certified Associate in Project Management

Question #1

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A. performance measurement criteria

B. source selection criteria

C. product acceptance criteria

D. phase exit criteria

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #2

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A. Earned value management

B. Forecasting

C. Critical chain methodology

D. Critical path methodology

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #3

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A. Identify Risks

B. Plan Risk Management

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #4

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

A. triangular distribution

B. tornado diagram

C. beta distribution

D. fishbone diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #5

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A. Strong

B. Weak

C. Managed

D. Balanced

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #6

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product

B. Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed

C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project

D. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #7

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

A. Monitor the stakeholder

B. Manage the stakeholder closely

C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied

D. Keep the stakeholder informed

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #8

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

A. Estimating

B. Scheduling

C. Controlling

D. Communicating

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #9

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A. Manage Project Team

B. Acquire Project Team

C. Plan Human Resource Management

D. Develop Project Team

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #10

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A. tracking

B. scoping

C. timing

D. defining

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #11

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A. Information management systems

B. Work performance reports

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Data gathering and representation

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #12

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A. Cause-and-effect diagram

B. Histogram

C. Control chart

D. Scatter diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #13

High-level project risks are included in which document?

A. Business case

B. Risk breakdown structure

C. Project charter

D. Risk register

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #14

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A. organizational process assets

B. a requirements traceability matrix

C. the project charter

D. the project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #15

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A. portfolio

B. program

C. selection

D. sub portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #16

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)

D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #17

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

A. Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B. Historical information and change control procedures

C. Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D. Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #18

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

A. Internal

B. External

C. Discretionary

D. Mandatory

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #19

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

A. realigned

B. performed

C. improved

D. controlled

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #20

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

A. Activity network diagrams

B. Affinity diagrams

C. Matrix diagrams

D. Interrelationship digraphs

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #21

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

A. Formal

B. Informal

C. Horizontal

D. Unofficial

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #22

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A. expert judgment

B. seller proposals

C. the project charter

D. the project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #23

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A. Cost of quality

B. Historical relationships

C. Project management software

D. Forecasting

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #24

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements

B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements

C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements

D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #25

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A. Define Activities

B. Direct and Manage Project Work

C. Develop Project Management Plan

D. Develop Project Charter

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #26

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A. Identify Stakeholders

B. Plan Stakeholder Management

C. Control Stakeholder Engagement

D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #27

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A. change requests

B. team performance assessments

C. project staff assignments

D. project documents updates

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #28

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

A. Portfolio

B. Project

C. Program

D. Operations

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #29

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

A. Program

B. Functional

C. Project

D. Portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #30

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A. Methodology

B. Risk category

C. Risk attitude

D. Assumption analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #31

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A. Make-or-buy decisions

B. Activity cost estimates

C. Seller proposals

D. Procurement documents

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #32

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A. expert judgment and change requests

B. work performance information and change requests

C. project management plan updates and work performance information

D. issue logs and organizational process assets updates

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #33

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A. Procurement audit

B. Lessons learned

C. Performance reporting

D. Payment requests

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #34

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

A. sponsor

B. customer

C. business partners

D. functional managers

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #35

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A. budget at completion (BAC)

B. earned value management (EVM)

C. to-complete performance index

D. cost performance index

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #36

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A. plan

B. process

C. program

D. portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #37

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A. quality audits

B. process analysis

C. statistical sampling

D. benchmarking

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #38

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Initiating

C. Planning

D. Executing

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #39

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A. negotiation

B. organizational theory

C. meeting

D. networking

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #40

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Manage Project Team

B. Collect Requirements

C. Sequence Activities

D. Direct and Manage Project Work

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #41

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A. Define Activities

B. Sequence Activities

C. Define Scope

D. Control Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #42

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

A. Project charter

B. Project scope statement

C. Scope management plan

D. Project document updates

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #43

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

A. Bottom-up

B. Parametric

C. Analogous

D. Three-point

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #44

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

A. Cost management plan

B. Quality management plan

C. Communications management plan

D. Risk management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #45

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. A work breakdown structure

C. The project management plan

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #46

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A. Supportive

B. Leading

C. Neutral

D. Resistant

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #47

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A. Project statement of work

B. Business case

C. Accepted deliverable

D. Work performance information

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #48

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database

B. Historical information and the stakeholder register

C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database

D. Project documents and historical information

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #49

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A. Product performance

B. Budget process

C. Collective capabilities

D. Organizational strategy

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #50

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A. 0

B. 0

C. 0

D. 1

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #51

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A. Histograms

B. Scatter diagrams

C. Flowcharts

D. Checksheets

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #52

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A. start-to-start (SS)

B. start-to-finish (SF)

C. finish-to-start (FS)

D. finish-to-finish (FF)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #53

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A. Estimate Costs

B. Plan Cost Management

C. Determine Budget

D. Control Costs

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #54

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

A. Coaching

B. Avoidance

C. Consensus

D. Influencing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #55

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

A. Plan Procurements

B. Control Procurements

C. Close Procurements

D. Conduct Procurements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #56

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A. Intuitive

B. Iterative

C. MeasuredD

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #57

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

A. objectives

B. schedule

C. product

D. approach

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #58

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

A. Push

B. Pull

C. Interactive

D. Iterative

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #59

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

A. Resource breakdown structure

B. Staffing management plan

C. Project organizational chart

D. Scope management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #60

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

A. Validate Scope

B. Close Project or Phase

C. Control Quality

D. Verify Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #61

An output of Control Schedule is:

A. A project schedule network diagram

B. A schedule management plan

C. Schedule data

D. Schedule forecasts

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #62

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A. Failure modes and effects analysis

B. Design of experiments

C. Quality checklist

D. Risk analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #63

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A. Build vs

B. Expert judgment

C. Alternatives identification

D. Product analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #64

Most experienced project managers know that:

A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK? Guide

B. there is no single way to manage a project

C. project management techniques are risk free

D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #65

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B. Ground rules for interaction

C. Enhanced resource availability

D. Functional managers becoming more involved

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #66

The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project

B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result

C. Describe the project in great detail

D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #67

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Sensitivity analysis

B. Probability and impact matrix

C. Risk data quality assessment

D. Risk categorization

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #68

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. Network diagrams

C. Staffing management plan

D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #69

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A. Negotiation

B. Roles and responsibilities

C. Recognition and rewards

D. Prizing and promoting

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #70

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Requested changes

B. Approved change requests

C. Work performance information

D. Implemented defect repair

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #71

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A. Staffing level is highest at the start

B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start

C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start

D. The cost of changes is highest at the start

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #72

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A. structure

B. process asset

C. matrix

D. breakdown structure

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #73

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A. Cost aggregation

B. Trend analysis

C. Forecasting

D. Variance analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #74

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

A. Scope

B. Quality

C. Specification

D. Grade

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #75

When is a Salience Model used?

A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. During quality assurance

C. In stakeholder analysis

D. During quality control (QC)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #76

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A. An organizational chart

B. Glossary of common terminology

C. Organizational process assets

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #77

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

A. Parametric estimating

B. Monte Carlo analysis

C. Alternatives analysis

D. Bottom-up estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #78

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A. Complete project phase

B. Project life

C. The project life cycle

D. Project cycle

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #79

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A. Human resource planning

B. Fast tracking

C. Critical chain method

D. Rolling wave planning

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #80

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Change requests

B. Performance reports

C. Organizational process assets

D. Project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #81

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes

B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion

C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants

D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #82

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A. Before constraints have been identified

B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #83

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A. Project Integration Management

B. Project Communications Management

C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D. Project Scope Management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #84

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A. Critical path method

B. Rolling wave planning

C. Precedence diagramming method

D. Parametric estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #85

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

A. Project management information system

B. Work performance information

C. Work breakdown structure

D. Variance analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #86

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A. 7

B. 8

C. 14

D. 16

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #87

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A. Mitigate

B. Transfer

C. Share

D. Avoid

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #88

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Resource availability

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Team performance assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #89

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A. Risk register

B. Risk audits

C. Risk urgency assessment

D. Risk probability and impact assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #90

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A. Risk register

B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C. Risk management plan

D. Risk category

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #91

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A. Histogram

B. Quality audits

C. Benchmarking

D. Performance measurement analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #92

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A. Transference

B. Avoidance

C. Exploring

D. Mitigation

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #93

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Controlling

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #94

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A. Analogous

B. Parametric

C. Bottom-up

D. Top-down

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #95

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team

B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team

C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team

D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #96

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Project management processes

D. Project scope management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #97

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A. Budget plan

B. Resource plan

C. Scope plan

D. Strategic plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #98

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A. At project initiation

B. During work performance analysis

C. Throughout the life of the project

D. At project milestones

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #99

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #100

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide? should:

A. always be applied uniformly

B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor

C. be selected as appropriate by the project team

D. be applied based on ISO guidelines

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #101

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #102

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

A. Crashing

B. Fast tracking

C. Leads and lags adjustment

D. Parallel task development

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #103

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan

C. Developing and maintaining the plan

D. Execution of deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #104

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A. Control

B. Bar

C. Flow

D. Pareto

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #105

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A. 1

B. 0

C. 0

D. 0

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #106

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A. Teaming agreements

B. Expert judgment

C. Bidder conferences

D. Contract types

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #107

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A. Organizational chart

B. Organizational theory

C. Organizational structure

D. Organizational behavior

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #108

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B. Work performance information

C. Work package

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #109

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A. Project document updates

B. Project scope statement changes

C. Variance analysis

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #110

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A. Project calendar

B. Communications management plan

C. Organizational process assets updates

D. Project document updates

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #111

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A. Team meetings

B. Subcontracting teams

C. Virtual teams

D. Teamwork

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #112

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A. Sequence Activities

B. Estimate Activity Resources

C. Develop Schedule

D. Control Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #113

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Identify Risks

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #114

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A. Approved change requests

B. Approved contract documentation

C. Work performance information

D. Rejected change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #115

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A. Cost of changes

B. Stakeholder influences

C. Risk

D. Uncertainty

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #116

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A. Project Scope Management

B. Project Time Management

C. Project Communications Management

D. Project Quality Management

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #117

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A. Conduct Procurements

B. Close Procurements

C. Administer Procurements,

D. Plan Procurements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #118

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Monitor and Control Risk

C. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. Plan Risk Responses

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #119

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A. Cost-reimbursable

B. Time and material

C. Fixed price or lump-sum

D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #120

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A. Expert judgment

B. Risk registry

C. Risk response planning

D. Interviewing

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #121

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A. WBS directory

B. Activity list

C. WBS

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #122

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A. Control Costs

B. Plan Quality

C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Determine Budget

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #123

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Quality Metrics

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Plan Quality

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #124

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A. EV less AC

B. AC less PV

C. EV less PV

D. AC less EV

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #125

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chart

B. Flowchart

C. Run chart

D. Pareto chart

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #126

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A. Risk assessment analysis

B. Make or buy analysis

C. Contract value analysis

D. Cost impact analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #127

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A. Inspection

B. Variance analysis

C. Expert judgment

D. Decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #128

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A. Project Time Management

B. Project Cost Management

C. Project Scope Management

D. Project Human Resource Management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #129

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A. Expert judgment

B. Project management methodology

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Status review meetings

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #130

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Plan Risk Management

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #131

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A. Acquire Project Team

B. Develop Project Management Plan

C. Manage Project Execution

D. Develop Project Charter

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #132

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A. Probability and impact matrix

B. Contingency analysis report

C. Risk urgency assessment

D. Rolling wave plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #133

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A. Configuration Identification

B. Configuration Status Accounting

C. Configuration Verification and Audit

D. Configuration Quality Assurance

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #134

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C. Define Scope

D. Report Performance

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #135

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A. Develop Schedule

B. Sequence Activities

C. Create WBS

D. Applying leads and lags

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #136

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A. Purchase requisition

B. Purchase order

C. Verbal agreement

D. Request for quote

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #137

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A. Cost risk simulation analysis

B. Expected monetary value analysis

C. Modeling and simulation

D. Sensitivity analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #138

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A. Resource attributes

B. Resource types

C. Resource categories

D. Resource breakdown structures (RBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #139

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert judgment

B. Project management software

C. Vendor bid analysis

D. Reserve analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #140

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A. state the guiding principles of the organization

B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches

C. state what is out of scope

D. outline the results of the Delphi technique

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #141

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A. Project

B. Functional

C. Program

D. Portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #142

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A. organization charts

B. ground rules

C. organizational theory,

D. conflict management

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #143

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A. Control Schedule

B. Quality Control

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #144

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A. updates

B. defect repairs

C. preventive actions

D. corrective actions

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #145

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A. Project life cycle

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. Enterprise environmental factors

D. Project initiation

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #146

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A. risk data quality assessment

B. variance and trend analysis

C. data gathering and representation techniques

D. risk audits

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #147

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

A. enterprise environmental factors

B. organizational process assets

C. project management plan

D. project funding requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #148

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A. Define Activities

B. Estimate Activity Durations

C. Estimate Activity Resources

D. Sequence Activities

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #149

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A. Plan Quality Management

B. Perform Quality Control

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #150

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A. in line with a measured degree of conformity

B. out of the hands of the customer

C. in a specified range of acceptable results

D. out of the process

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #151

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A. quality management plan

B. project management plan

C. communications management plan

D. schedule management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #152

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects

B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects

C. linked to specific phases or subprojects

D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #153

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

A. US$5000

B. US$9500

C. US$10,000

D. US$12,500

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #154

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A. Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B. Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C. Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D. High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #155

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A. Resource leveling and fast tracking

B. Fast tracking and crashing

C. Crashing and applying leads and lags

D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #156

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Quality Control

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Monitor and Control Risks

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #157

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A. Responsible organization

B. Change requests

C. Validated deliverables

D. Organizational process assets

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #158

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A. training, testing, and warranty work

B. equipment, rework, and scrap

C. training, document processes, and inspections

D. inspections, rework, and warranty work

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #159

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A. Rolling wave planning

B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C. Alternatives analysis

D. Parametric estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #160

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A. Portfolio

B. Process

C. Project

D. Program

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #161

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

A. Limited

B. Low to moderate

C. Moderate to high

D. High to almost total

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #162

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A. Influence diagrams

B. Brainstorming

C. Assumption analysis

D. SWOT analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #163

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A. corrective action

B. preventive action

C. non-conformance report,

D. defect repair

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #164

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

A. Product scope description

B. Procurement statement of work

C. Project schedule

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #165

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D. Market demand and/or legal requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #166

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

A. Planning

B. Closing

C. Executing

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #167

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

A. requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods

B. methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models

C. requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods

D. management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #168

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A. Scope baseline

B. Organizational process assets

C. Project schedule

D. Resource calendars

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #169

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A. Compromising

B. Collaborating

C. Smoothing

D. Problem Solving

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #170

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

A. quality audits

B. process analysis

C. benchmarking

D. inspection

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #171

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A. Arrow Diagram

B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM)

C. Activity-On-Node (AON)

D. schedule network diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #172

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Close Project or Phase

D. Monitor and Control Project Work

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #173

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

A. Communication management activities

B. Change requests

C. Configuration verification and audit

D. Work performance information

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #174

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #175

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A. Transfer

B. Share

C. Avoid

D. Accept

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #176

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

A. Teaming

B. Collective bargaining

C. Sharing

D. Working

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #177

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A. Determine Budget

B. Baseline Budget

C. Control Costs

D. Estimate Costs

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #178

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A. scope creep

B. a change request

C. work performance information

D. deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #179

The definition of operations is a/an:

A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service

B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area

D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #180

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #181

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A. Analogous

B. Parametric

C. Three-point

D. What-if scenario analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #182

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A. Executing

B. Initiating,

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Planning

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #183

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #184

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A. Stakeholder management strategy

B. Communication methods

C. Issue log

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #185

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A. Three-point estimates

B. Resource leveling

C. Precedence diagramming method

D. Bottom-up estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #186

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A. stakeholder management strategy

B. communications management plan,

C. stakeholder register,

D. performance report

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #187

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A. Vendor risk assessment diagram

B. Risk register

C. Requirements traceability matrix

D. Area of responsibility summary

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #188

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A. expert judgment

B. rolling wave planning

C. work performance information

D. specification

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #189

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality metrics

B. Less rework

C. Quality control measurements

D. Benchmarking

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #190

What is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan

B. External feedback

C. Performance reports

D. Co-location

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #191

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control charts

C. Pareto chart

D. Histogram

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #192

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A. -8000

B. -2000

C. 2000

D. 8000

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #193

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A. Ishikawa

B. Milestone

C. Influence

D. Decision tree

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #194

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A. Start-to-start (SS)

B. Start-to-finish (SF)

C. Finish-to-finish (FF)

D. Finish-to-start (FS)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #195

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A. quality plan

B. schedule network

C. management document update

D. scope statement

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #196

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles

B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle

C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle

D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #197

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A. Contract plan

B. Procurement plan

C. Closure process

D. Procurement audits

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #198

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Project management plan

B. Change request status updates

C. Organizational process assets updates

D. Work performance information

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #199

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A. Team performance assessment

B. Roles and responsibilities

C. Staffing management plan

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #200

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizations

B. Schedule baselines

C. Work performance measurements

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #201

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

A. Internal failure costs

B. Prevention costs

C. Appraisal costs

D. External failure costs

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #202

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A. cause and effect diagram

B. control chart

C. flowchart

D. histogram

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #203

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B. The Standard for Program Management

C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK?)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #204

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

A. Exploit

B. Share

C. Enhance

D. Transfer

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #205

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A. Changing project specifications continuously

B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #206

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

A. There is a cost underrun

B. There is a cost overrun

C. The project may not meet the deadline

D. The project is 20 days behind schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #207

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems

B. Constrained by limited resources

C. Repetitiveness

D. Uniqueness

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #208

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. Cost right at the estimated value

B. Cost under the estimated value

C. Cost right at the actual value

D. Cost over the estimated value

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #209

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A. Change requests

B. Variance analysis

C. Accepted deliverables

D. Requirements documentation

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #210

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A. Conduct Procurements

B. Plan Procurements

C. Administer Procurements

D. Close Procurements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #211

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Brainstorming

B. Strategies for opportunities

C. Decision tree analysis

D. Risk data quality assessment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #212

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A. Functional

B. Projectized

C. Matrix

D. Balanced

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #213

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Risk register

B. Risk data quality assessment

C. Risk categorization

D. Risk urgency

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #214

Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A. Executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Planning

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #215

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A. Plan Communications

B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C. Stakeholder Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #216

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%

B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%

C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%

D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #217

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #218

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion

B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget

C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay

D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #219

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A. Applying calendars

B. Resource leveling

C. Resource planning

D. Resource conflict management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #220

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor

B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service

C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications

D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #221

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

A. Performance report

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. Requested changes

D. Project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #222

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis

C. Project records

D. Performance reviews

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #223

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased

B. The critical path will have positive total float

C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager

D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #224

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A. Control Scope

B. Collect Requirements

C. Create WBS

D. Define Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #225

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A. Mitigate

B. Transfer

C. Exploit

D. Avoid

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #226

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #227

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager

B. Constantly evolving

C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #228

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A. Alternatives identification

B. Scope decomposition

C. Expert judgmentD

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #229

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge

C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment

D. The product is needed in 250 days

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #230

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A. Activity resource requirements

B. Published estimating data

C. Resource calendars

D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #231

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A. 0

B. 0

C. 1

D. 1

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #232

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A. Performance measure

B. Baseline schedule

C. Schedule network analysis

D. Variance analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #233

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Stays the same

D. Has no bearing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #234

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

A. EV

B. SPI

C. PV

D. ETC

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #235

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Close Project or Phase

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #236

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A. Ishikawa diagram

B. Control chart

C. Run chart

D. Pareto chart

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #237

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A. Positive

B. Zero

C. Negative

D. Greater than one

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #238

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A. Define Activities

B. Create WBS

C. Define Scope

D. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #239

What is project management?

A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #240

Resource calendars are included in the:

A. staffing management plan

B. work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. project communications plan

D. project charter

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #241

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #242

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype

B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor

C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance

D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #243

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A. Affinity

B. Scatter

C. Fishbone

D. Matrix

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #244

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A. Create WBS

B. complete project work

C. calculate costs

D. Develop Project Management Plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #245

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A. dictionary

B. chart

C. report

D. register

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #246

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A. Keep satisfied

B. Keep informed

C. Manage closely

D. Monitor

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #247

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance will continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

A. $800

B. $1000

C. $1250

D. $1800

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #248

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A. Project manager

B. External stakeholders

C. Internal stakeholders

D. Project team

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #249

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A. planned

B. conceived

C. chartered

D. executed

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #250

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #251

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #252

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A. Decode

B. Encode

C. Medium

D. Noise

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #253

During project selection, which factor is most important?

A. Types of constraints

B. Internal business needs

C. Budget

D. Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #254

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A. organizational process assets

B. resource calendar

C. human resource plan

D. Develop Project Team process

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #255

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Project scope statement

C. WBS dictionary

D. Work performance measurements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #256

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A. highlight the need for root cause analysis

B. share the process documentation among stakeholders

C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities

D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #257

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A. Communications management plan

B. Human resource plan

C. Quality management plan

D. Procurement management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #258

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A. Acquisition

B. Negotiation

C. Virtual team

D. Pre-assignment

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #259

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A. Brainstorming

B. Focus groups

C. Affinity diagram

D. Plurality

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #260

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment

B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default

C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis

D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #261

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A. Configuration management plan

B. Scope baseline

C. Requirements management plan

D. Schedule baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #262

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A. External

B. Lead

C. Discretionary

D. Mandatory

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #263

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)

D. Time and Material Contract (T&M)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #264

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A. quality

B. value

C. technical performance

D. status

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #265

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A. under budget and behind schedule

B. over budget and ahead of schedule

C. on schedule

D. complete; all planned values have been earned

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #266

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A. Reserve analysis

B. Three-point estimating

C. Parametric estimating

D. Analogous estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #267

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A. majority rule technique

B. nominal group technique

C. Delphi technique,

D. idea/mind mapping technique

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #268

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #269

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A. Product analysis

B. Project charter

C. Scope baseline

D. Project scope statement

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #270

A process is defined as:

A. A set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a certain objective

B. A set of guidelines that explains how to carry out a particular task

C. The inputs for a task and the tools and techniques required to carry out the task

D. A collection of logically related project activities, usually culminating in the completion of a major deliverable

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #271

A project can be defined as a:

A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

B. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

C. Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

D. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #272

A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks before the planned date without changing the scope. Which of the following techniques may be applied to reevaluate the schedule?

A. What-if scenario analysis

B. Critical chain method

C. Schedule crashing

D. Resource leveling

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #273

A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

A. Risk monitoring and controlling

B. Risk response planning

C. Qualitative risk analysis

D. Quantitative risk analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #274

Activities on the critical path have which type of float?

A. Zero free float

B. Zero or negative float

C. Negative and positive float

D. Zero or positive float

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #275

An associate who calculates fees daily to support the department is doing which of the following?

A. Phase work

B. Project work

C. Lifecycle work

D. Operations work

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #276

An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:

A. deliverable

B. assumption

C. constraint

D. exclusion

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #277

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

A. Organizational Structure

B. Organizational Process Assets

C. Organizational Matrix

D. Organizational Breakdown Structures

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #278

An output of the Manage Project Team process is:

A. project management plan updates

B. project staff assignments updates

C. team performance assessments

D. resource calendar updates

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #279

Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and cost are:

A. Contingency reserves

B. Management reserves

C. Authorized budgets

D. Cost baselines

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #280

Cost aggregation is typically performed by aggregating work packages in accordance with the:

A. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT)

B. Cost of quality (COQ)

C. Rough order of magnitude (ROM)

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #281

Cost of quality (COQ) refers to total cost of/to:

A. All efforts related to quality

B. Product inspection activities

C. Maintain plan quality

D. Perform quality control

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #282

Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:

A. Minus actual cost [EV - AC]

B. Minus planned value [EV - PV]

D. Divided by planned value [EV/PV]

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #283

Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and templates are all tools and techniques for which of the following?

A. Define Activities

B. Estimate Activity Durations

C. Develop Schedule

D. Sequence Activities

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #284

Design of experiments (DOE) should be used during which of the following processes?

A. Perform Quality Assurance

B. Total Quality Management

C. Perform Quality Control

D. Plan Quality Management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #285

In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?

A. When the project charter is signed

B. When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project

C. When the project manager is appointed

D. When the necessary finance or funding is obtained

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #286

In which of the following types of organizations is resource availability moderate to high?

A. Weak matrix

B. Balanced matrix

C. Strong matrix

D. Projectized

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #287

In which process group is the scope first defined?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Controlling

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #288

Inputs to the Define Activities process include:

A. Project scope statement, resource calendars, and work performance information

B. Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C. Project scope statement, approved change requests, and WBS dictionary

D. Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #289

On what is project baseline development established?

A. Approved product requirements

B. Estimated project cost and schedule

C. Actual project cost and schedule

D. Revised project cost and schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #290

One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:

A. planned, designed, and built in

B. planned, designed, and inspected in

C. built in, created, and reviewed

D. built in, created, and standardized

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #291

Organizational process assets can be divided into which of the following two categories?

A. Project files and corporate knowledge base

B. Templates, and processes and procedures

C. Standards, and processes and procedures

D. Corporate knowledge base and processes and procedures

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #292

Outputs from constituent processes might be used as:

A. Inputs to other processes

B. Proof of process completion

C. Identification of project tasks

D. Indicators to eliminate project redundancies

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #293

Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:

A. decreased likelihood of conflicting interests between stakeholders

B. decreased likelihood of the projects progress being impeded

C. increased likelihood of project failure

D. increased likelihood of project success

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #294

PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes:

A. product-oriented processes

B. project management processes

C. product-oriented and project management processes

D. program management and project management processes

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #295

Project Management Process Groups are linked by:

A. the outputs they produce

B. discrete or one-time events

C. the project management plan

D. common tools and techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #296

Project management processes are:

A. Static; they must not change across different projects

B. Applied globally and across all industry groups

C. Discrete elements with well-defined interfaces

D. Project phases, applied as required in different projects

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #297

Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?

A. Project managers

B. Stakeholders

C. Functional managers

D. Sponsors

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #298

Projects can intersect with an organization's operations at various points during the product life cycle such as:

A. When there is an operations shutdown (i

B. When developing new products, upgrading products, or expanding outputs

C. When a project transitions from a temporary to a permanent status

D. When the project manager is promoted to operations manager

View answer

Correct Answer: D

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