PMI-CAPM Certification Exam Sample, Free Exam Resources for Success

Question #1

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A. Customer request

B. Market demand

C. Technological advance

D. Strategic opportunity

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #2

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #3

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A. Decomposition B

C. Inspection

D. Checklist analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #4

To which process is work performance information an input?

A. Administer Procurements

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Create WBS

D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #5

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A. Procurement management plan

B. Evaluation criteria

C. Work breakdown structure

D. Procurement statement of work

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #6

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Control Costs

B. Determine Budget

C. Estimate Costs

D. Estimate Activity Resources

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #7

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A. The Delphi technique

B. Nominal group technique

C. Affinity diagram

D. Brainstorming

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #8

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A. Final phase of the project

B. Start of the project

C. End of the project

D. Midpoint of the project

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #9

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A. When the project uses capital expenditures

B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

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Correct Answer: D

Question #10

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A. Scope baseline

C. Organizational process assets

D. Requirements traceability matrix

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #11

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Develop Project Management Plan

C. Close Project

D. Develop Project Charter

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #12

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Estimate Costs

B. Estimate Activity Resources

C. Control Costs

D. Determine Budget

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #13

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders

B. Conduct risk management activities for a project

C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project

D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #14

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A. One

B. Five

C. Six

D. Seven

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #15

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

A. US$158,700

B. US$172,500

C. US$187,500

D. US$245,600

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #16

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C. Project schedule network diagram

D. Mandatory dependencies list

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #17

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team

C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team

D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #18

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Project management processes

D. Project scope management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #19

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A. Budget plan

B. Resource plan

C. Scope plan

D. Strategic plan

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Correct Answer: B

Question #20

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A. At project initiation

B. During work performance analysis

C. Throughout the life of the project

D. At project milestones

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #21

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #22

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide? should:

A. always be applied uniformly

B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor

C. be selected as appropriate by the project team

D. be applied based on ISO guidelines

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #23

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #24

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

A. Crashing

B. Fast tracking

C. Leads and lags adjustment

D. Parallel task development

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #25

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities B

C. Developing and maintaining the plan

D. Execution of deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #26

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A. Pareto

B. Ishikawa

C. Shewhart-Deming

D. Delphi

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #27

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B. Central coordination of communication management across projects

C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives

D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #28

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A. Cost-benefit analysis

B. Variance analysis

C. Reserve analysis

D. Stakeholder analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #29

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A. BAC

B. EAC

C. ETC

D. WBS

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #30

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A. Plan contracting

B. Requesting seller responses

C. Selecting seller's

D. Planning purchase and acquisition

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #31

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A. Control

B. Bar

C. Flow

D. Pareto

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #32

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A. 1

B. 0

C. 0

D. 0

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #33

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A. Teaming agreements B

C. Bidder conferences

D. Contract types

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #34

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A. Organizational chart

B. Organizational theory

C. Organizational structure

D. Organizational behavior

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #35

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B. Work performance information

C. Work package

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #36

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A. Project document updates

B. Project scope statement changes

C. Variance analysis

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #37

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A. Project calendar

B. Communications management plan

C. Organizational process assets updates

D. Project document updates

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #38

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A. Team meetings

B. Subcontracting teams

C. Virtual teams

D. Teamwork

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Correct Answer: A

Question #39

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Identify Risks

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #40

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A. Approved change requests B

C. Work performance information

D. Rejected change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #41

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A. Cost of changes

B. Stakeholder influences

C. Risk

D. Uncertainty

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #42

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A. Project Scope Management

B. Project Time Management

C. Project Communications Management

D. Project Quality Management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #43

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A. Conduct Procurements

B. Close Procurements

C. Administer Procurements,

D. Plan Procurements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #44

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Monitor and Control Risk

C. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. Plan Risk Responses

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #45

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A. Cost-reimbursable

B. Time and material

C. Fixed price or lump-sum

D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #46

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A. Expert judgment

B. Risk registry

C. Risk response planning

D. Interviewing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #47

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A. WBS directory

B. Activity list

C. WBS

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #48

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A. Control Costs B

C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Determine Budget

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #49

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Quality Metrics

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Plan Quality

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #50

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A. EV less AC

B. AC less PV

C. EV less PV

D. AC less EV

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #51

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chart

B. Flowchart

C. Run chart

D. Pareto chart

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #52

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A. Risk assessment analysis

B. Make or buy analysis

C. Contract value analysis

D. Cost impact analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #53

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A. Inspection

B. Variance analysis

C. Expert judgment

D. Decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #54

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A. Expert judgment

B. Project management methodology

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Status review meetings

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #55

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A. Monitor and Control Risks B

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #56

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A. Acquire Project Team

B. Develop Project Management Plan

C. Manage Project Execution

D. Develop Project Charter

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #57

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A. Probability and impact matrix

B. Contingency analysis report

C. Risk urgency assessment

D. Rolling wave plan

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #58

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A. Configuration Identification

B. Configuration Status Accounting

C. Configuration Verification and Audit

D. Configuration Quality Assurance

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #59

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C. Define Scope

D. Report Performance

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #60

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A. Develop Schedule

B. Sequence Activities

C. Create WBS

D. Applying leads and lags

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #61

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A. Cost risk simulation analysis

B. Expected monetary value analysis

C. Modeling and simulation

D. Sensitivity analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #62

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A. Resource attributes

C. Resource categories

D. Resource breakdown structures (RBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #63

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert judgment

B. Project management software

C. Vendor bid analysis

D. Reserve analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #64

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A. state the guiding principles of the organization

B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches

C. state what is out of scope

D. outline the results of the Delphi technique

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #65

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A. Project

B. Functional

C. Program

D. Portfolio

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #66

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A. organization charts

B. ground rules

C. organizational theory,

D. conflict management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #67

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A. Control Schedule

B. Quality Control

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #68

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A. updates

B. defect repairs

C. preventive actions

D. corrective actions

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #69

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A. Project life cycle

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. Enterprise environmental factors

D. Project initiation

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #70

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A. risk data quality assessment

C. data gathering and representation techniques

D. risk audits

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #71

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

A. enterprise environmental factors

B. organizational process assets

C. project management plan,

D. project funding requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #72

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A. Define Activities

B. Estimate Activity Durations

C. Estimate Activity Resources

D. Sequence Activities

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #73

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A. Plan Quality

B. Perform Quality Control

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #74

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A. in line with a measured degree of conformity

B. out of the hands of the customer

C. in a specified range of acceptable results

D. out of the process

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #75

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A. quality management plan

B. project management plan

C. communications management plan

D. schedule management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #76

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects

B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects

C. linked to specific phases or subprojects

D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #77

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

A. US$S000

B. US$9500

C. US$10,000

D. US$12,500

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #78

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A. Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget B

C. Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full- time project manager's role

D. High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #79

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A. Resource leveling and fast tracking

B. Fast tracking and crashing

C. Crashing and applying leads and lags

D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #80

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Quality Control

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Monitor and Control Risks

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #81

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A. Responsible organization

B. Change requests

C. Validated deliverables

D. Organizational process assets

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #82

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A. training, testing, and warranty work

B. equipment, rework, and scrap

C. training, document processes, and inspections

D. inspections, rework, and warranty work

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #83

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A. Rolling wave planning

B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C. Alternatives analysis

D. Parametric estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #84

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

A. Limited

B. Low to moderate

C. Moderate to high

D. High to almost total

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #85

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks? A. Influence diagrams

B. Brainstorming

C. Assumption analysis

D. SWOT analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #86

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A. corrective action

B. preventive action

C. non-conformance report,

D. defect repair

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #87

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

A. Product scope description

B. Procurement statement of work

C. Project schedule

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #88

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D. Market demand and/or legal requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #89

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

A. Planning

B. Closing

C. Executing

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #90

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

A. requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods

B. methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models

C. requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods

D. management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #91

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A. Compromising

B. Collaborating

C. Smoothing

D. Problem Solving

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #92

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is: A. quality audits.

B. process analysis

C. benchmarking

D. inspection

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #93

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A. Arrow Diagram

B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM)

C. Activity-On-Node (AON)

D. schedule network diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #94

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Close Project or Phase

D. Monitor and Control Project Work

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #95

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #96

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A. Transfer

B. Share

C. Avoid

D. Accept

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #97

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

A. Teaming

B. Collective bargaining

C. Sharing D

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #98

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A. Determine Budget

B. Baseline Budget

C. Control Costs

D. Estimate Costs

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #99

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A. scope creep

B. a change request

C. work performance information

D. deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #100

The definition of operations is a/an:

A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service

B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area

D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #101

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #102

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A. Analogous

B. Parametric

C. Three-point

D. What-if scenario analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #103

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A. Executing

B. Initiating,

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Planning

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #104

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #105

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A. Stakeholder management strategy

B. Communication methods

C. Issue log D

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #106

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A. Three-point estimates

B. Resource leveling

C. Precedence diagramming method

D. Bottom-up estimating

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #107

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A. stakeholder management strategy

B. communications management plan,

C. stakeholder register,

D. performance report

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #108

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process? A. Vendor risk assessment diagram

B. Risk register

C. Requirements traceability matrix

D. Area of responsibility summary

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #109

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A. expert judgment

B. rolling wave planning

C. work performance information

D. specification

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #110

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #111

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

A. Procurement statement of work

B. Resource calendars

C. Procurement document

D. Independent estimates

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #112

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing

C. Initiating

D. Planning

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #113

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A. Matrix diagram

B. Histogram

C. Control chart

D. Flowchart

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #114

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D. Ce = (C0 + C,,, + 4Cp) / 6

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #115

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique? A. Probability

B. Quantitative

C. Qualitative

D. Sensitivity

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #116

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

A. Authority

B. Role

C. Competency

D. Responsibility

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #117

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A. Preventive action

B. Risk management

C. Corrective action

D. Defect repair

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #118

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Historical information,

C. Organizational process assets

D. Corporate knowledge base

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #119

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B. Report Performance

C. Distribute Information

D. Plan Communications

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #120

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A. Vendor bid analysis

B. Three-point estimates

C. Parametric estimating

D. Reserve analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #121

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A. Project schedule

B. Organizational process assets updates

C. Project document updates

D. Work performance information

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #122

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A. Planning B

C. Closing

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #123

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

A. establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team

B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented

C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline

D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #124

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A. Project sponsor

B. Project manager

C. Person responsible for project scheduling

D. Person who is most familiar with the task

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #125

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A. Risk management plan

B. Risk register

C. Change requests

D. Risk response plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #126

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A. Cyclic

B. Progressive

C. Repetitive

D. Iterative

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #127

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C. Requirements management plan

D. Requirements documentation

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #128

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

A. Cost-reimbursable contracts

B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C. Fixed-price contracts

D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #129

Types of internal failure costs include:

A. inspections

B. equipment and training

C. lost business

D. reworking and scrapping

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #130

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

A. part-time B

C. occasional

D. unlimited

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #131

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A. Activity sequencing

B. Resource leveling

C. Lead and lag adjusting

D. Crashing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #132

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A. Legal

B. Discretionary

C. Internal

D. Resource

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #133

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Plan Quality

D. Report Performance

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #134

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

A. Develop Human Resource Plan

B. Manage Project Team

C. Develop Project Team

D. Acquire Project Team

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #135

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Verify Scope

C. Control Scope

D. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #136

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. 0

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #137

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A. Three weeks

B. Four weeks

C. Five weeks

D. Six weeks

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #138

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality metrics B

C. Quality control measurements

D. Benchmarking

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #139

What is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan

B. External feedback

C. Performance reports

D. Co-location

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #140

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control charts

C. Pareto chart

D. Histogram

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #141

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A. -8000

B. -2000

C. 2000

D. 8000

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #142

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A. Start-to-start (SS)

B. Start-to-finish (SF)

C. Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D. Finish-to-start (FS)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #143

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A. quality plan

B. schedule network

C. management document update

D. scope statement

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #144

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles

B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle

C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle

D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #145

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A. Contract plan

B. Procurement plan

C. Closure process

D. Procurement audits

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #146

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Project management plan B

C. Organizational process assets updates

D. Work performance information

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #147

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A. Team performance assessment

B. Roles and responsibilities

C. Staffing management plan

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #148

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizations

B. Schedule baselines

C. Work performance measurements

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #149

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

A. Internal failure costs

B. Prevention costs

C. Appraisal costs

D. External failure costs

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #150

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A. cause and effect diagram

B. control chart

C. flowchart

D. histogram

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #151

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B. The Standard for Program Management

C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK?)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #152

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A. Changing project specifications continuously

B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #153

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

A. There is a cost underrun

C. The project may not meet the deadline

D. The project is 20 days behind schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #154

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems

B. Constrained by limited resources

C. Repetitiveness

D. Uniqueness

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #155

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. Cost right at the estimated value

B. Cost under the estimated value

C. Cost right at the actual value

D. Cost over the estimated value

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #156

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A. Change requests

B. Variance analysis

C. Accepted deliverables

D. Requirements documentation

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #157

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A. Conduct Procurements

B. Plan Procurements

C. Administer Procurements

D. Close Procurements

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #158

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A. Functional

B. Projectized

C. Matrix

D. Balanced

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #159

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Risk register

B. Risk data quality assessment

C. Risk categorization

D. Risk urgency

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #160

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A. Executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Planning

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #161

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A. Plan Communications

C. Stakeholder Analysis

D. Identify Stakeholders

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #162

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%

B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%

C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%

D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #163

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #164

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion

B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget

C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay

D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #165

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A. Applying calendars

B. Resource leveling

C. Resource planning

D. Resource conflict management

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #166

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor

B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service

C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications

D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #167

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis

C. Project records

D. Performance reviews

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #168

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking? A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B. The critical path will have positive total float

C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager

D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #169

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A. Control Scope

B. Collect Requirements

C. Create WBS

D. Define Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #170

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A. Mitigate

B. Transfer

C. Exploit

D. Avoid

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #171

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #172

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager

B. Constantly evolving

C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #173

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Close Project or Phase

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #174

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A. Positive

B. Zero

C. Negative

D. Greater than one

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #175

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A. Define Activities

C. Define Scope

D. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #176

What is project management?

A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #177

Resource calendars are included in the:

A. staffing management plan

B. work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. project communications plan

D. project charter

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #178

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A. stakeholder register

B. project management plan

C. project scope statement

D. requirements management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #179

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype

B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor

C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance

D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #180

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #181

The diagram below is an example of a: A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B. Project team

C. SWOT Analysis

D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #182

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A. Project sponsor

B. Project manager

C. Program manager

D. Project management office (PMO)

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #183

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A. Affinity

B. Scatter

C. Fishbone

D. Matrix

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #184

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A. Create WBS

B. complete project work

C. calculate costs

D. Develop Project Management Plan

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #185

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A. dictionary

C. report

D. register

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #186

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

A. $800

B. $1000

C. $1250

D. $1800

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #187

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A. Project manager

B. External stakeholders

C. Internal stakeholders

D. Project team

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #188

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A. planned

B. conceived

C. chartered

D. executed

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #189

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #190

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #191

During project selection, which factor is most important?

A. Types of constraints

B. Internal business needs

C. Budget

D. Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #192

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A. organizational process assets

C. human resource plan

D. Develop Project Team process

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #193

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Project scope statement

C. WBS dictionary

D. Work performance measurements

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #194

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A. Acceptance of deliverables

B. Change requests

C. Project management plan updates

D. Benchmarking

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #195

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Performance reports

B. Project charter

C. Outputs from planning processes

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #196

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A. Two

B. Four

C. Five

D. Twelve

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #197

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases

B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully

C. a recognized standard for the project management profession

D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #198

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A. Plan Quality

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Perform Quality Control

D. Total Quality Management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #199

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications? A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #200

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A. Slack

B. Float

C. Lag

D. Lead

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #201

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Executing

D. Monitoring and Controlling

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #202

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A. Work performance reports

B. Assumptions logs

C. Network diagrams

D. Academic studies

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #203

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A. Variance Analysis

B. Define Scope

C. Verify Scope

D. Control Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #204

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A. work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. schedule target

C. performance measurement baseline (PMB)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #205

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A. event

B. response,

C. perception

D. impact

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #206

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A. prevention over inspection

B. statistical sampling

C. management responsibility,

D. continuous improvement

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #207

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process? A. Variance analysis

B. Three-point estimating

C. Bottom-up estimating

D. Historical relationships

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #208

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A. assumption log

B. quality checklist

C. risk register

D. contract type

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #209

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A. operate separately

B. move together in batches,

C. overlap and interact

D. move in a sequence

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #210

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A. scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy

B. working relationships among various stakeholders and team members

C. application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D. work to be completed next

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #211

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A. facilitated workshops

B. observations

C. questionnaires and surveys

D. group creativity techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #212

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #213

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A. Networking

B. Training

C. Negotiation

D. Issue log

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #214

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating: A. Pareto charts.

B. quality metrics

C. change requests,

D. Ishikawa diagrams

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #215

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #216

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A. requirements documentation

B. scope baseline

C. project charter

D. validated deliverables

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #217

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A. Schedule

B. Quality

C. Communications

D. Cost

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #218

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #219

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Control Costs

B. Determine Budget C

D. Control Budget

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #220

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

A. Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B. Precedence diagramming

C. Project schedule network diagramming

D. Mathematical analysis diagramming

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #221

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A. cost management plan

B. risk management plan,

C. activity list,

D. risk register

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #222

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Project scope statement

B. Project charter

C. Project plan

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #223

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Estimate Activity Durations,

C. Develop Schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #224

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A. Share

B. Accept

C. Mitigate

D. Transfer

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #225

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A. risk taking and risk avoidance

B. known risk and unknown risk

C. identified risk and analyzed risk

D. varying degrees of risk

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #226

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process? A. Project statement of work

B. Selected sellers

C. Risk register updates

D. Teaming agreements

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #227

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A. a control chart

B. baseline

C. Create WBS

D. decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #228

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B. Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C. Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D. Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #229

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

A. Project

B. Scope

C. Contract

D. Program

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #230

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

A. Avoid

B. Accept

C. Mitigate

D. Exploit

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #231

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A. Estimate at completion

B. Cost performance C

D. To-complete performance

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #232

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A. prototypes

B. expert judgment

C. alternatives identification

D. product analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #233

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A. highlight the need for root cause analysis

B. share the process documentation among stakeholders

C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities

D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #234

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A. Communications management plan

B. Human resource plan

C. Quality management plan

D. Procurement management plan

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #235

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A. Acquisition

B. Negotiation

C. Virtual team

D. Pre-assignment

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #236

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A. Brainstorming

B. Focus groups

C. Affinity diagram

D. Plurality

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #237

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment

B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default

C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis

D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #238

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A. Configuration management plan

B. Scope baseline

C. Requirements management plan

D. Schedule baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #239

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A. External B

C. Discretionary

D. Mandatory

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #240

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)

D. Time and Material Contract (T&M)

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #241

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A. under budget and behind schedule

B. over budget and ahead of schedule

C. on schedule

D. complete; all planned values have been earned

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #242

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A. majority rule technique

B. nominal group technique

C. Delphi technique,

D. idea/mind mapping technique

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #243

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A. Product analysis

B. Project charter

C. Scope baseline

D. Project scope statement

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #244

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A. Technical performance measurement

B. Cost performance baseline

C. Benchmarking

D. Cost of quality

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #245

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A. Accepted deliverables

B. Organizational process assets updates

C. Managing stakeholder expectations

D. Performance reports

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #246

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan B

C. Project management plan

D. Service level agreement

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #247

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases

B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases

D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #248

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A. Document analysis

B. Observations

C. Product analysis

D. Expert judgment

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #249

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A. Independent estimates

B. Market research

C. Analytical techniques

D. Bidder conferences

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #250

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A. Communication models

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Organizational communications,

D. Organizational cultures and styles

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #251

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods

C. Earned value management

D. Analytical techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #252

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

A. Identify Risks

B. Control Risks

C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #253

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A. Project Risk Management

B. Project Human Resource Management

C. Project Scope Management

D. Project Stakeholder Management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #254

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

A. Stakeholder register B

C. Stakeholder management plan

D. Project charter

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #255

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

A. Plan Procurement Management

B. Control Procurements

C. Collect Requirements

D. Plan Cost Management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #256

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A. Change control tools

B. Expert judgment

C. Delphi technique

D. Change log

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #257

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A. Control Scope

B. Define Scope

C. Plan Scope Management

D. Collect Requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #258

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A. Identify Risks

B. Control Risks

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Plan Risk Responses

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #259

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A. Plan Schedule Management

B. Develop Project Charter

C. Develop Schedule

D. Plan Scope Management

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #260

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

A. The project charter

B. The stakeholder analysis

C. A communication management plan

D. A stakeholder register

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #261

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A. Alternatives identification B

C. Expert judgment

D. Product analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #262

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge

C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment

D. The product is needed in 250 days

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #263

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A. Activity resource requirements

B. Published estimating data

C. Resource calendars

D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #264

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A. Performance measure

B. Baseline schedule

C. Schedule network analysis

D. Variance analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #265

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

A. EV

B. SPI

C. PV

D. ETC

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #266

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A. Executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Initiating

D. Planning

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #267

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A. Cost estimates

B. Resource calendars,

C. The project charter,

D. The risk register

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #268

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

A. Product analysis

B. Variance analysis

C. Document analysis,

D. Decomposition

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #269

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

A. Develop Project Team

C. Acquire Project Team

D. Plan Human Resource Management

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #270

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

A. Mandatory

B. Discretionary

C. Internal

D. External

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #271

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Close Project or Phase

D. Control Scope

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #272

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A. Work performance reports

B. Change requests

C. Activity resource requirements

D. Enterprise environmental factors

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #273

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

A. Procurement statement of work

B. Purchase order

C. Source selection criteria

D. Bidder conference

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #274

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

A. Efficient

B. Effective

C. Push

D. Pull

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #275

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A. Adaptive

B. Predictive

C. Incremental

D. Iterative

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #276

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A. 0

C. 1

D. 2

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #277

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A. Schedule data

B. Activity list

C. Risk register

D. Scope baseline

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #278

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A. Activity list

B. Project plan

C. Activity duration estimates

D. Project schedule

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #279

When is a project finished?

A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C. When the project objectives have been met

D. After resources have been released

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #280

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Develop Project Charter

C. Direct and Manage Project Execution

D. Collect Requirements

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #281

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Initiating

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #282

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A. Plan Communications

B. Performance reporting

C. Project status reports

D. Distribute Information

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #283

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Identify Risks

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #284

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives

C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events

D. Removal of project risk

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #285

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A. Collect Requirements

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. Develop Project Management Plan

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #286

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Initiating

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Planning

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #287

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A. -700

B. -200

C. 200

D. 500

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #288

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

A. Functional managers and manager of project managers

B. Functional managers only

C. Project managers only

D. Technical managers and project managers

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #289

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A. Root cause analysis

B. Risk probability and impact assessment

C. Expert judgment

D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #290

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chart

B. Reporting flow diagram

C. Project organization chart

D. Project team structure diagram

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #291

A project charter is an output of which Process Group? A. Executing

B. Planning

C. Initiating

D. Closing

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #292

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A. Inspection

B. Variance analysis

C. Decomposition

D. Product analysis

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #293

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

A. Estimate Costs

B. Control Costs

C. Determine Budget

D. Plan Cost Management

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #294

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

A. Project team

B. Focus group

C. Change control board

D. Project stakeholders

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #295

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

A. A requirements traceability matrix

B. The scope management plan

C. Work performance reports

D. Change requests

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #296

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

A. Project charter

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Stakeholder register

D. Organizational process assets

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #297

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management? A. Work performance data

B. Project documents

C. Scope baseline

D. Requirements documentation

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #298

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A. Control Quality

B. Control Scope

C. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. Perform Integrated Change Control

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #299

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

A. Work performance information

B. Inspections and audits

C. Payment systems

D. Procurement performance reviews

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #300

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

A. Project Communications Management

B. Project Integration Management

C. Project Risk Management

D. Project Scope Management

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #301

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

A. Scope baseline

B. Organizational process assets

C. Enterprise environmental factors

D. Risk register

View answer

Correct Answer: A

Question #302

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan

B. Project charter

C. Project management plan

D. Service level agreement

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #303

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases

B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases

D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases

View answer

Correct Answer: C

Question #304

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A. Document analysis

B. Observations

C. Product analysis

D. Expert judgment

View answer

Correct Answer: D

Question #305

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A. Independent estimates

B. Market research

C. Analytical techniques

D. Bidder conferences

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #306

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A. Communication models

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Organizational communications,

D. Organizational cultures and styles

View answer

Correct Answer: B

Question #307

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods

C. Earned value management

D. Analytical techniques

View answer

Correct Answer: D

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