DON'T WANT TO MISS A THING?

Certification Exam Passing Tips

Latest exam news and discount info

Curated and up-to-date by our experts

Yes, send me the newsletter

PMI-CAPM Certification Exam Sample, Free Exam Resources for Success | SPOTO

Achieving the PMI-CAPM (Certified Associate in Project Management) certification is a significant milestone for aspiring project managers. To ensure success in the CAPM certification exam, comprehensive preparation is crucial. Our PMI-CAPM Certification Exam Sample offers a comprehensive suite of free exam resources, including mock exams, exam questions, and exam answers, to help you ace the test. Our mock exams simulate the real exam environment, providing you with a realistic experience and enabling you to assess your preparedness. The exam questions and answers are meticulously crafted by subject matter experts, ensuring their accuracy and relevance to the CAPM exam content. Additionally, our exam preparation resources cover a wide range of topics, from project management fundamentals to practical application scenarios. Utilize our online exam questions, real exam questions, and simulation exams to identify areas where you need further study or practice. Our exam sample questions and exam preparation materials are designed to help you develop a thorough understanding of the CAPM exam content, boosting your confidence and increasing your chances of success on the big day.
Take other online exams
Question #1
An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity
View answer
Correct Answer: A

View The Updated CAPM Exam Questions

SPOTO Provides 100% Real CAPM Exam Questions for You to Pass Your CAPM Exam!

Get CAPM Practice Test
Question #2
Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #3
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition B
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #4
To which process is work performance information an input?
A. Administer Procurements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Create WBS
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #5
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #6
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Activity Resources
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #7
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #8
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #9
When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures
B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #10
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline
C. Organizational process assets
D. Requirements traceability matrix
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #11
Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #12
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #13
Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #14
If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
A. One
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #15
The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?
A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #16
Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update
C. Project schedule network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #17
The Human Resource Management processes are:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #18
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #19
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #20
When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #21
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #22
The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide? should:
A. always be applied uniformly
B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #23
Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?
A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)
B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)
C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #24
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #25
What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities B
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #26
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #27
A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordination of communication management across projects
C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #28
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #29
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #30
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller's
D. Planning purchase and acquisition
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #31
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?
A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #32
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000
A. 1
B. 0
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #33
Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?
A. Teaming agreements B
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #34
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #35
What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Work performance information
C. Work package
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #36
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #37
Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communications management plan
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Project document updates
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #38
In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?
A. Team meetings
B. Subcontracting teams
C. Virtual teams
D. Teamwork
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #39
Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #40
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?
A. Approved change requests B
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #41
Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?
A. Cost of changes
B. Stakeholder influences
C. Risk
D. Uncertainty
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #42
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #43
Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Administer Procurements,
D. Plan Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #44
In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Monitor and Control Risk
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Plan Risk Responses
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #45
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #46
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #47
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #48
Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
A. Control Costs B
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Determine Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #49
Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Metrics
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Plan Quality
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #50
How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #51
Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #52
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?
A. Risk assessment analysis
B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #53
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Decomposition
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #54
Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #55
Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?
A. Monitor and Control Risks B
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #56
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #57
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #58
Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Status Accounting
C. Configuration Verification and Audit
D. Configuration Quality Assurance
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #59
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Define Scope
D. Report Performance
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #60
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #61
Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?
A. Cost risk simulation analysis
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Sensitivity analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #62
Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:
A. Resource attributes
C. Resource categories
D. Resource breakdown structures (RBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #63
Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management software
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Reserve analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #64
A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:
A. state the guiding principles of the organization
B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches
C. state what is out of scope
D. outline the results of the Delphi technique
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #65
Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #66
One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:
A. organization charts
B. ground rules
C. organizational theory,
D. conflict management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #67
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
A. Control Schedule
B. Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #68
Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:
A. updates
B. defect repairs
C. preventive actions
D. corrective actions
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #69
Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?
A. Project life cycle
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Project initiation
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #70
A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:
A. risk data quality assessment
C. data gathering and representation techniques
D. risk audits
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #71
In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. project management plan,
D. project funding requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #72
The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?
A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #73
Quality metrics are an output of which process?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #74
The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:
A. in line with a measured degree of conformity
B. out of the hands of the customer
C. in a specified range of acceptable results
D. out of the process
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #75
An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:
A. quality management plan
B. project management plan
C. communications management plan
D. schedule management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #76
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:
A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects
B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #77
A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?
A. US$S000
B. US$9500
C. US$10,000
D. US$12,500
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #78
Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?
A. Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget B
C. Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full- time project manager's role
D. High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #79
The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?
A. Resource leveling and fast tracking
B. Fast tracking and crashing
C. Crashing and applying leads and lags
D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #80
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #81
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #82
When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:
A. training, testing, and warranty work
B. equipment, rework, and scrap
C. training, document processes, and inspections
D. inspections, rework, and warranty work
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #83
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Parametric estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #84
Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?
A. Limited
B. Low to moderate
C. Moderate to high
D. High to almost total
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #85
Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks? A. Influence diagrams
B. Brainstorming
C. Assumption analysis
D. SWOT analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #86
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:
A. corrective action
B. preventive action
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #87
Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?
A. Product scope description
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Project schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #88
Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution
B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)
C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request
D. Market demand and/or legal requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #89
In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #90
Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:
A. requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods
B. methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models
C. requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods
D. management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #91
Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?
A. Compromising
B. Collaborating
C. Smoothing
D. Problem Solving
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #92
A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is: A. quality audits.
B. process analysis
C. benchmarking
D. inspection
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #93
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:
A. Arrow Diagram
B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM)
C. Activity-On-Node (AON)
D. schedule network diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #94
Change request status updates are an output of which process?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #95
Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #96
The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
A. Transfer
B. Share
C. Avoid
D. Accept
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #97
Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
A. Teaming
B. Collective bargaining
C. Sharing D
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #98
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:
A. Determine Budget
B. Baseline Budget
C. Control Costs
D. Estimate Costs
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #99
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
A. scope creep
B. a change request
C. work performance information
D. deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #100
The definition of operations is a/an:
A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service
B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area
D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #101
How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #102
Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Three-point
D. What-if scenario analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #103
The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:
A. Executing
B. Initiating,
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #104
Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates
B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates
C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates
D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #105
Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?
A. Stakeholder management strategy
B. Communication methods
C. Issue log D
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #106
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?
A. Three-point estimates
B. Resource leveling
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Bottom-up estimating
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #107
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
A. stakeholder management strategy
B. communications management plan,
C. stakeholder register,
D. performance report
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #108
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process? A. Vendor risk assessment diagram
B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #109
The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:
A. expert judgment
B. rolling wave planning
C. work performance information
D. specification
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #110
What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business
B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area
C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives
D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #111
Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Resource calendars
C. Procurement document
D. Independent estimates
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #112
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #113
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #114
Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?
A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4
B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4
C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6
D. Ce = (C0 + C,,, + 4Cp) / 6
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #115
Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique? A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #116
When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?
A. Authority
B. Role
C. Competency
D. Responsibility
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #117
Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action
B. Risk management
C. Corrective action
D. Defect repair
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #118
The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Historical information,
C. Organizational process assets
D. Corporate knowledge base
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #119
Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?
A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
B. Report Performance
C. Distribute Information
D. Plan Communications
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #120
Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?
A. Vendor bid analysis
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Reserve analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #121
Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?
A. Project schedule
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Project document updates
D. Work performance information
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #122
Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
A. Planning B
C. Closing
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #123
The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:
A. establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team
B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented
C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline
D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #124
Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Person responsible for project scheduling
D. Person who is most familiar with the task
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #125
Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Change requests
D. Risk response plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #126
Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?
A. Cyclic
B. Progressive
C. Repetitive
D. Iterative
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #127
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #128
Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
A. Cost-reimbursable contracts
B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
C. Fixed-price contracts
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #129
Types of internal failure costs include:
A. inspections
B. equipment and training
C. lost business
D. reworking and scrapping
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #130
In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
A. part-time B
C. occasional
D. unlimited
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #131
Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
A. Activity sequencing
B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
D. Crashing
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #132
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #133
Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Plan Quality
D. Report Performance
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #134
Co-location is a tool and technique of:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan
B. Manage Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Acquire Project Team
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #135
During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Verify Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #136
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #137
A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?
A. Three weeks
B. Four weeks
C. Five weeks
D. Six weeks
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #138
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics B
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #139
What is a tool to improve team performance?
A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-location
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #140
Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control charts
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #141
Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?
A. -8000
B. -2000
C. 2000
D. 8000
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #142
In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
A. Start-to-start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Rnish-to-finish (FF)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #143
A required input for Create WBS is a project:
A. quality plan
B. schedule network
C. management document update
D. scope statement
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #144
Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?
A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles
B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle
C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle
D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #145
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?
A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #146
Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Project management plan B
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Work performance information
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #147
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
A. Team performance assessment
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #148
Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?
A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Work performance measurements
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #149
Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
A. Internal failure costs
B. Prevention costs
C. Appraisal costs
D. External failure costs
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #150
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
A. cause and effect diagram
B. control chart
C. flowchart
D. histogram
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #151
Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?
A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK?)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #152
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #153
A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?
A. There is a cost underrun
C. The project may not meet the deadline
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #154
Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #155
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. Cost right at the estimated value
B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #156
Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?
A. Change requests
B. Variance analysis
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #157
Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #158
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #159
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #160
Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #161
The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:
A. Plan Communications
C. Stakeholder Analysis
D. Identify Stakeholders
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #162
What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%
B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #163
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #164
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion
B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget
C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay
D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #165
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
A. Applying calendars
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource planning
D. Resource conflict management
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #166
"Tailoring" is defined as the:
A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor
B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service
C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications
D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #167
Which is an output from Distribute Information?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #168
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking? A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.
B. The critical path will have positive total float
C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #169
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #170
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #171
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #172
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #173
Which process requires implementation of approved changes?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Close Project or Phase
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #174
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #175
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
A. Define Activities
C. Define Scope
D. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #176
What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #177
Resource calendars are included in the:
A. staffing management plan
B. work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. project communications plan
D. project charter
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #178
An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
A. stakeholder register
B. project management plan
C. project scope statement
D. requirements management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #179
Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype
B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor
C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance
D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #180
In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #181
The diagram below is an example of a: A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS).
B. Project team
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #182
Who is responsible for initiating a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office (PMO)
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #183
Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
A. Affinity
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Matrix
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #184
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
A. Create WBS
B. complete project work
C. calculate costs
D. Develop Project Management Plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #185
The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:
A. dictionary
C. report
D. register
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #186
The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
A. $800
B. $1000
C. $1250
D. $1800
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #187
Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
A. Project manager
B. External stakeholders
C. Internal stakeholders
D. Project team
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #188
Risk exists the moment that a project is:
A. planned
B. conceived
C. chartered
D. executed
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #189
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #190
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #191
During project selection, which factor is most important?
A. Types of constraints
B. Internal business needs
C. Budget
D. Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #192
The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets
C. human resource plan
D. Develop Project Team process
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #193
Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #194
Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
A. Acceptance of deliverables
B. Change requests
C. Project management plan updates
D. Benchmarking
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #195
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Performance reports
B. Project charter
C. Outputs from planning processes
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #196
Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Five
D. Twelve
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #197
A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #198
The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Total Quality Management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #199
Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications? A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #200
A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?
A. Slack
B. Float
C. Lag
D. Lead
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #201
The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #202
Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Assumptions logs
C. Network diagrams
D. Academic studies
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #203
Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?
A. Variance Analysis
B. Define Scope
C. Verify Scope
D. Control Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #204
The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:
A. work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. schedule target
C. performance measurement baseline (PMB)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #205
When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:
A. event
B. response,
C. perception
D. impact
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #206
Plan-do-check-act is also known as:
A. prevention over inspection
B. statistical sampling
C. management responsibility,
D. continuous improvement
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #207
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process? A. Variance analysis
B. Three-point estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Historical relationships
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #208
The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log
B. quality checklist
C. risk register
D. contract type
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #209
The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:
A. operate separately
B. move together in batches,
C. overlap and interact
D. move in a sequence
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #210
The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:
A. scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy
B. working relationships among various stakeholders and team members
C. application area, the standard used, and the industry,
D. work to be completed next
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #211
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops
B. observations
C. questionnaires and surveys
D. group creativity techniques
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #212
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate
B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #213
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #214
The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating: A. Pareto charts.
B. quality metrics
C. change requests,
D. Ishikawa diagrams
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #215
Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?
A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan
B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates
C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents
D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #216
An input of the Create WBS process is:
A. requirements documentation
B. scope baseline
C. project charter
D. validated deliverables
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #217
In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
A. Schedule
B. Quality
C. Communications
D. Cost
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #218
Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #219
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget C
D. Control Budget
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #220
Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?
A. Activity-on-arrow diagramming
B. Precedence diagramming
C. Project schedule network diagramming
D. Mathematical analysis diagramming
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #221
Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:
A. cost management plan
B. risk management plan,
C. activity list,
D. risk register
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #222
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. Project scope statement
B. Project charter
C. Project plan
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #223
After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Estimate Activity Durations,
C. Develop Schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #224
Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?
A. Share
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #225
Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:
A. risk taking and risk avoidance
B. known risk and unknown risk
C. identified risk and analyzed risk
D. varying degrees of risk
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #226
Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process? A. Project statement of work
B. Selected sellers
C. Risk register updates
D. Teaming agreements
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #227
The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:
A. a control chart
B. baseline
C. Create WBS
D. decomposition
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #228
Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?
A. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline
B. Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline
C. Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline
D. Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #229
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?
A. Project
B. Scope
C. Contract
D. Program
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #230
Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?
A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Exploit
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #231
Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?
A. Estimate at completion
B. Cost performance C
D. To-complete performance
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #232
A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:
A. prototypes
B. expert judgment
C. alternatives identification
D. product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #233
One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:
A. highlight the need for root cause analysis
B. share the process documentation among stakeholders
C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities
D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #234
While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?
A. Communications management plan
B. Human resource plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Procurement management plan
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #235
Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?
A. Acquisition
B. Negotiation
C. Virtual team
D. Pre-assignment
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #236
Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?
A. Brainstorming
B. Focus groups
C. Affinity diagram
D. Plurality
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #237
Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?
A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment
B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default
C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis
D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #238
Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?
A. Configuration management plan
B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan
D. Schedule baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #239
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
A. External B
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #240
The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)
D. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #241
When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:
A. under budget and behind schedule
B. over budget and ahead of schedule
C. on schedule
D. complete; all planned values have been earned
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #242
The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:
A. majority rule technique
B. nominal group technique
C. Delphi technique,
D. idea/mind mapping technique
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #243
Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?
A. Product analysis
B. Project charter
C. Scope baseline
D. Project scope statement
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #244
Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?
A. Technical performance measurement
B. Cost performance baseline
C. Benchmarking
D. Cost of quality
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #245
Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Managing stakeholder expectations
D. Performance reports
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #246
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan B
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #247
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #248
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #249
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #250
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #251
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #252
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #253
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #254
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register B
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #255
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #256
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #257
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #258
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #259
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Develop Schedule
D. Plan Scope Management
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #260
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter
B. The stakeholder analysis
C. A communication management plan
D. A stakeholder register
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #261
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification B
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #262
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment
D. The product is needed in 250 days
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #263
An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
A. Activity resource requirements
B. Published estimating data
C. Resource calendars
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #264
Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #265
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #266
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #267
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #268
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #269
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team
C. Acquire Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #270
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #271
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #272
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports
B. Change requests
C. Activity resource requirements
D. Enterprise environmental factors
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #273
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #274
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #275
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #276
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0
C. 1
D. 2
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #277
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #278
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #279
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #280
Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution
D. Collect Requirements
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #281
Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #282
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?
A. Plan Communications
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Distribute Information
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #283
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #284
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events
D. Removal of project risk
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #285
Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Develop Project Management Plan
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #286
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #287
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?
A. -700
B. -200
C. 200
D. 500
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #288
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #289
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
A. Root cause analysis
B. Risk probability and impact assessment
C. Expert judgment
D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #290
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #291
A project charter is an output of which Process Group? A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #292
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #293
Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #294
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #295
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
A. A requirements traceability matrix
B. The scope management plan
C. Work performance reports
D. Change requests
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #296
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #297
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management? A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #298
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #299
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information
B. Inspections and audits
C. Payment systems
D. Procurement performance reviews
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #300
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #301
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #302
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #303
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #304
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #305
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #306
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #307
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
View answer
Correct Answer: D

View The Updated PMI Exam Questions

SPOTO Provides 100% Real PMI Exam Questions for You to Pass Your PMI Exam!

Get PMI Practice Test

View Answers after Submission

Please submit your email and WhatsApp to get the answers of questions.

Note: Please make sure your email ID and Whatsapp are valid so that you can get the correct exam results.

Email:
Whatsapp/phone number:


Copyright © 2024. Designer by SPOTO Official Website. All Rights Reserved.