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Free CCNA 200-301 Practice Questions 2026 Part3 | Cisco Certified Network Associate

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Question #1
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 1729
B. 172
C. 192
D. 209
View answer
Correct Answer: B

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Question #2
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
A. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks
B. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network
C. connect wireless devices to a wired network
D. support secure user logins to devices on the network
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #3
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value
B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface
C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #4
Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?
A. The source MAC address is changed
B. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff
C. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same
D. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #5
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)
A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers
E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
View answer
Correct Answer: AE
Question #6
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
A. management
B. protected frame
C. action
D. control
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #7
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
A. start of frame delimiter
B. Type field
C. preamble
D. Data field
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #8
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
A. 0
B. 0
C. 0
D. 0
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #9
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically.Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
A. ip default-gateway
B. ip route
C. ip default-network
D. ip address dhcp
E. ip address dynamic
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #10
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
A. SYIM flood
B. reflection
C. teardrop
D. amplification
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #11
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?
A. ASwitch 1
B. BSwitch 2
C. CSwitch 3
D. DSwitch 4
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #12
Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?
A. pipe
B. control
C. transport
D. tunnel
E. Reveal Answer
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #13
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?
A. Set Fast Transition to Enabled
B. Enable WPA Policy
C. Set PMF to Required
D. Enable MAC Filtering
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #14
Which feature Is mandatory when configuring a new SSID for a wireless network running WPA3-Personal mode?
A. Opportunistic Wireless Encryption
B. Protected Management Frame
C. Enhanced Open
D. Fast Transition
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #15
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
A. This design will function as intended
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #16
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
A. reduced operational costs
B. reduced hardware footprint
C. faster changes with more reliable results
D. fewer network failures
E. increased network security
View answer
Correct Answer: AC
Question #17
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services
B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control
D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control
E. Reveal Answer
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #18
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half- open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
A. YN flood
B. eflection
C. eardrop
D. mplification
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #19
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable
B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order
C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable
D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #20
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use5GHz access points?
A. Client Band Select
B. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients
C. OEAP Spilt Tunnel
D. 11ac MU-MIMO
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #21
Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
A. Interface errors are incrementing
B. High usage is causing high latency
C. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA
D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #22
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
A. spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them
B. spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
C. leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch
D. leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #23
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
A. AProvide uninterrupted forwarding service
B. BPolice traffic that is sent to the edge of the network
C. CProvide direct connectivity for end user devices
D. DEnsure timely data transfer between layers
E. EInspect packets for malicious activity
View answer
Correct Answer: AD
Question #24
Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?
A. FF00:1/12
B. 2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128
C. 2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64
D. FE80::1/10
E. Reveal Answer
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #25
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
A. ipv6 address dhcp
B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #26
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?
A. 10
B. 10
C. 10
D. 10
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #27
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication
B. to implement NAT
C. to connect applications
D. to conserve global address space
E. to manage routing overhead
View answer
Correct Answer: AD
Question #28
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
A. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B
B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B
C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
D. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #29
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts
B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
D. to pass traffic between different networks
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #30
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address
B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address
C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges
D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware
E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90
F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network
View answer
Correct Answer: ADE
Question #31
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses?
A. multicast
B. unique local
C. link-local
D. global unicast
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #32
Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.)
A. Comply with PCI regulations
B. Conserve IPv4 address
C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers
D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach
E. Comply with local law
View answer
Correct Answer: BD
Question #33
What are network endpoints?
A. act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network
B. a threat to the network if they are compromised
C. support inter-VLAN connectivity
D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet
E. Reveal Answer
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #34
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
A. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10
B. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192
C. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172
D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #35
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
A. broadband cable access
B. frame-relay packet switching
C. dedicated point-to-point leased line
D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #36
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. flooding
D. multicast
E. Reveal Answer
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #37
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
A. It belongs to a private IP address range
B. The router does not support /28 mask
C. It is a network IP address
D. It is a broadcast IP address
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #38
What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources
B. Each hypervisor supports a single virtual machine and a single software switch
C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage
D. Virtualized servers run efficiently when physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #39
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
View answer
Correct Answer: AD
Question #40
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched VirtualInterface to use address space efficiently?
A. ip address 192
B. ip address 192
C. ip address 192
D. ip address 192
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #41
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. local
B. mesh
C. flexconnect
D. sniffer
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #42
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
A. management
B. protected frame
C. action
D. control
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #43
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
A. enforcing routing policies
B. marking interesting traffic for data policies
C. applying security policies
D. attaching users to the edge of the network
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #44
What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
A. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components
B. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services
C. physical workstations are configured to share resources
D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #45
Refer to the exhibit.Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
A. etween zones 3 and 4
B. etween zones 3 and 6
C. etween zones 2 and 5
D. etween zones 1 and 2
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #46
An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
A. router
B. hypervisor
C. switch
D. straight cable
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #47
Refer to the exhibit.What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
A. he 10
B. he source 10
C. single destination address
D. ll hosts in the 10
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #48
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A. CP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery
B. DP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol
C. DP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits
D. CP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #49
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
A. 10
B. 10
C. 10
D. 10
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #50
What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. he hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources
B. ach hypervisor supports a single virtual machine and a single software switch
C. he hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage
D. irtualized servers run efficiently when physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #51
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
A. 10
B. 10
C. 10
D. 10
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #52
What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?
A.
B.
C.
D.
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #53
Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?
A. 7# interface FastEthernet1/0 ip address 10
B. 7# interface FastEthernet1/0 ip address 10
C. 7# interface FastEthernet1/0 ip address 10
D. 7# interface FastEthernet1/0 ip address 10
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #54
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only
B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only
C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only
D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #55
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. It establishes a static route to the 172
B. It establishes a static route to the 192
C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172
D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192
E. It uses the default administrative distance
F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist
View answer
Correct Answer: AE
Question #56
Refer to the exhibit.What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
A. 55
B. 55
C. 55
D. 55
View answer
Correct Answer: D

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