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Free CCNA 200-301 Practice Questions 2026 Part2 | Cisco Certified Network Associate

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Question #1
Which step immediately follows receipt of the EAP success message when session resumption is disabled for an EAP-TLS connection?
A. PMKID caching
B. four-way handshake
C. 802
D. EAPOL-key frame
View answer
Correct Answer: C

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Question #2
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
C. The data can pass through the cladding
D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections
View answer
Correct Answer: BD
Question #3
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process. Which command must be configured on switch SW2's Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
A. Achannel-group 1 mode desirable
B. Bchannel-group 1 mode on
C. Cchannel-group 1 mode auto
D. Dchannel-group 1 mode active
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #4
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
A. different nonoverlapping channels
B. one overlapping channel
C. one nonoverlapping channel
D. different overlapping channels
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #5
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth
B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports
C. It provides variable latency
D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #6
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #7
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
View answer
Correct Answer: AE
Question #8
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels
B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point
C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels
D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point
E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel
View answer
Correct Answer: AC
Question #9
Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?
A. he source MAC address is changed
B. he destination MAC address is replaced with ffff
C. he source and destination MAC addresses remain the same
D. he switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #10
Which NAT type allows multiple inside hosts to share a single public IP address using different port numbers?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. PAT
D. Destination NAT
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #11
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)
A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic
B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets
C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection
D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP
E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
View answer
Correct Answer: AE
Question #12
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies
B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host
E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
View answer
Correct Answer: AB
Question #13
Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate register and accept terms before accessing the internet?
A. One-Click
B. Hotspot
C. Enhanced Bluetooth
D. Whole Home
E. Reveal Answer
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #14
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
A. enable dynamic ARP inspection
B. manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP
C. activate all ports and place in the default VLAN
D. configure extended VLANs
E. Reveal Answer
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #15
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost
B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking
C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery
D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #16
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
A. explicitly assign a link-local address
B. disable the EUI-64 bit process
C. enable SLAAC on an interface
D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #17
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?
A. runt
B. collision
C. late collision
D. CRC
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #18
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled
B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated
C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused
D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #19
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
A. 5, 6, 7
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 6, 11
D. 1, 5, 10
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #20
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
A. infrastructure-as-a-service
B. platform-as-a-service
C. business process as service to support different types of service
D. software-as-a-service
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #21
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network
C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range addressing
D. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #22
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
A. Pv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration
B. nlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes
C. n individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes
D. Pv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #23
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
A. pv6 address dhcp
B. pv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
C. pv6 address autoconfig
D. pv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #24
Which set of actions satisfies the requirement for multifactor authentication?
A. he user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device
B. he user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen
C. he user enters a user name and password, and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen
D. he user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #25
What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?
A. All four pairs of the cable are used
B. It detects the device is a powered device
C. The default level is used for the access point
D. Power policing is enabled at the same time
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #26
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength
B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #27
An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails.Which configuration must be used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #28
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast
D. global unicast
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #29
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
A. anagement
B. rotected frame
C. ction
D. ontrol
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #30
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 34
D. 43
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #31
What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?
A. identifies an access point on a WLAN
B. uses the password to connect to an access point
C. uses policies to prevent unauthorized users
D. uses a case-sensitive text string
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #32
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?
A. AIf will choose the route with the longest match
B. BIt will always prefer the static route over dynamic routes and choose the routeS 100
C. CIt will choose the route with the highest metric
D. DIt will choose the route with the lowest metric,R 100
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #33
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #34
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)
A. 2000::/3
B. 2002::5
C. FC00::/7
D. FF02::1
E. FF02::2
View answer
Correct Answer: DE
Question #35
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. LAN controller
C. load balancer
D. firewall
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #36
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #37
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
View answer
Correct Answer: AD
Question #38
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A, verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
A. router
B. Layer 2 switch
C. load balancer
D. firewall
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #39
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery
B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data
C. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data
D. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #40
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
A. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts
B. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the Internet for web services
C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization
D. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #41
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol
View answer
Correct Answer: D
Question #42
Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
A. p route 172
B. p route 172
C. p route 172
D. p route 172
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #43
A corporate office uses four floors in a building.-Floor 1 has 24 users.-Floor 2 has 29 users.-Floor 3 has 28 users.-Floor 4 has 22 users.Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
A. 192
B. 192
C. 192
D. 192
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #44
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer
B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer
D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
View answer
Correct Answer: AB
Question #45
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
A. DHCP relay agent
B. DHCP server
C. DHCPDISCOVER
D. DHCPOFFER
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #46
Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R2 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?
A. 001:db8:9aa6:6aa9:C801:A6FF:FEA4:1
B. 001:db8:9aa6:6aa9:C081:A6FF:FF4A:1
C. 001:db8:9aa6:6aa9:C001:6AFE:FF00:1
D. 001:db8:9aa6:6aa9:4642:823F:FE47:1
View answer
Correct Answer: A
Question #47
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs
B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port
D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN
View answer
Correct Answer: C
Question #48
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native vlan 10
C. switchport mode trunk
D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
E. Reveal Answer
View answer
Correct Answer: B
Question #49
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery
B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol
D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits
View answer
Correct Answer: A

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